NCERT NEET Biology English Medium Part-1 | Chapter 17: Locomotion and Movement.

NCERT NEET Biology English Medium Part-1 | Chapter 17 : Locomotion and Movement.

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Question 1: Which of the following cells in the human body exhibit amoeboid movement?

1. a) Macrophages and leucocytes.
2. b) Erythrocytes and lymphocytes.
3. c) Macrophages and fibroblasts.
4. d) Hepatocytes and leucocytes.

Answer: a.

Question 2: The coordinated movement of cilia in the trachea assists in which of the following processes?

1. a) Pushing the ovum through the fallopian tube.
2. b) Removing dust particles and foreign substances inhaled along with atmospheric air.
3. c) Facilitating the movement of food through the oesophagus.
4. d) Enhancing the absorption of nutrients in the small intestine.

Answer: b.

Question 3: About what percentage of the body weight of a human adult is contributed by muscles?

1. a) 20-30 percent.
2. b) 30-40 percent.
3. c) 40-50 percent.
4. d) 50-60 percent.

Answer: c.

Question 4: Which of the following properties is exclusively associated with muscle tissue?

1. a) Excitability and conductivity.
2. b) Contractility and extensibility.
3. c) Elasticity and secretion.
4. d) Excitability, contractility, extensibility and elasticity.

Answer: d.

Question 5: Visceral muscles are primarily located in the inner walls of which of the following structures?

1. a) Heart and blood vessels.
2. b) Alimentary canal and reproductive tract.
3. c) Lungs and diaphragm.
4. d) Skeletal bones and skin.

Answer: b.

Question 6: Cardiac muscles are anatomically distinct from skeletal muscles because they are:

1. a) Striated and involuntary.
2. b) Unstriated and involuntary.
3. c) Striated and voluntary.
4. d) Unstriated and voluntary.

Answer: a.

Question 7: A collagenous connective tissue layer that holds together multiple muscle bundles (fascicles) is known as:

1. a) Epimysium.
2. b) Endomysium.
3. c) Fascia.
4. d) Perimysium.

Answer: c.

Question 8: The plasma membrane enclosing the muscle fibre is specifically termed as:

1. a) Sarcoplasm.
2. b) Sarcolemma.
3. c) Sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. d) Endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: b.

Question 9: The sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibres serves as a major storehouse for which of the following ions?

1. a) Sodium ions.
2. b) Potassium ions.
3. c) Calcium ions.
4. d) Magnesium ions.

Answer: c.

Question 10: The characteristic striated appearance of a skeletal muscle fibre is due to the distribution pattern of:

1. a) Actin and myosin proteins.
2. b) Troponin and tropomyosin proteins.
3. c) Myoglobin and hemoglobin.
4. d) Collagen and elastin.

Answer: a.

Question 11: The light bands in a myofibril contain primarily which protein and are known as?

1. a) Myosin, A-band.
2. b) Actin, I-band.
3. c) Actin, A-band.
4. d) Myosin, I-band.

Answer: b.

Question 12: An elastic fibre called the 'Z' line bisects which of the following bands?

1. a) A-band.
2. b) I-band.
3. c) H-zone.
4. d) M-line.

Answer: b.

Question 13: The functional unit of contraction in a muscle fibre is defined as the portion of the myofibril between two successive:

1. a) M-lines.
2. b) Z-lines.
3. c) A-bands.
4. d) I-bands.

Answer: b.

Question 14: In a resting state, the central part of the thick filament that is not overlapped by thin filaments is called the:

1. a) Z-line.
2. b) M-line.
3. c) H-zone.
4. d) I-band.

Answer: c.

Question 15: Each actin (thin) filament is composed of how many 'F' (filamentous) actin helically wound to each other?

1. a) One.
2. b) Two.
3. c) Three.
4. d) Four.

Answer: b.

Question 16: Troponin is a complex protein distributed at regular intervals on which of the following proteins?

1. a) F-actin.
2. b) Tropomyosin.
3. c) Myosin.
4. d) Meromyosin.

Answer: b.

Question 17: In the resting state, troponin masks the active binding sites for which protein?

1. a) Actin on the myosin filaments.
2. b) Myosin on the actin filaments.
3. c) Calcium on the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. d) ATP on the myosin head.

Answer: b.

Question 18: Each myosin filament is a polymerized protein consisting of many monomeric proteins called:

1. a) G-actins.
2. b) F-actins.
3. c) Meromyosins.
4. d) Tropomyosins.

Answer: c.

Question 19: The globular head of a meromyosin molecule functions as an active ATPase enzyme and has binding sites for:

1. a) Actin and Tropomyosin.
2. b) ATP and Troponin.
3. c) ATP and active sites for actin.
4. d) Calcium and ATP.

Answer: c.

Question 20: Heavy Meromyosin (HMM) consists of which components of the meromyosin molecule?

1. a) Globular head and short arm.
2. b) Tail and short arm.
3. c) Globular head and tail.
4. d) Tail only.

Answer: a.

Question 21: The mechanism of muscle contraction is best explained by the sliding filament theory, which states that:

1. a) Thick filaments slide over thin filaments.
2. b) Thin filaments slide over thick filaments.
3. c) Both thick and thin filaments contract in length.
4. d) Z-lines are stretched outwards.

Answer: b.

Question 22: The neuromuscular junction is a synapse between a motor neuron and which of the following?

1. a) Muscle fascicle.
2. b) Sarcolemma of the muscle fibre.
3. c) Sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. d) Myofibril.

Answer: b.

Question 23: When a neural signal reaches the neuromuscular junction, it releases a neurotransmitter. Identify the correct neurotransmitter.

1. a) Dopamine.
2. b) Serotonin.
3. c) Acetylcholine.
4. d) GABA.

Answer: c.

Question 24: The generation of an action potential in the sarcolemma leads to the release of calcium ions into the:

1. a) Extracellular fluid.
2. b) Sarcoplasmic reticulum.
3. c) Sarcoplasm.
4. d) T-tubules.

Answer: c.

Question 25: Increased calcium levels in the sarcoplasm lead to the binding of calcium with a subunit of which protein?

1. a) Tropomyosin.
2. b) Troponin.
3. c) Actin.
4. d) Myosin.

Answer: b.

Question 26: The formation of a cross-bridge during muscle contraction requires energy obtained from the hydrolysis of:

1. a) GTP.
2. b) ADP.
3. c) ATP.
4. d) AMP.

Answer: c.

Question 27: During muscle contraction, the sliding of the thin filaments pulls the Z-lines attached to them inwards, resulting in:

1. a) Lengthening of the sarcomere.
2. b) Shortening of the sarcomere.
3. c) Disappearance of the A-band.
4. d) Widening of the H-zone.

Answer: b.

Question 28: What happens to the A-band and I-band during the shortening of the muscle?

1. a) Both A-band and I-band retain their length.
2. b) A-band shortens while I-band retains its length.
3. c) I-band shortens while A-band retains its length.
4. d) Both A-band and I-band shorten.

Answer: c.

Question 29: The cross-bridge is broken when the myosin head binds to which newly available molecule?

1. a) Calcium.
2. b) ADP.
3. c) ATP.
4. d) Inorganic phosphate.

Answer: c.

Question 30: Repeated activation of muscles can lead to fatigue due to the anaerobic breakdown of glycogen into:

1. a) Pyruvic acid.
2. b) Lactic acid.
3. c) Carbon dioxide and water.
4. d) Ethanol.

Answer: b.

Question 31: Red muscle fibres appear reddish due to the high content of which oxygen-storing pigment?

1. a) Hemoglobin.
2. b) Myoglobin.
3. c) Cytochrome.
4. d) Chlorocruorin.

Answer: b.

Question 32: White muscle fibres are characterized by having:

1. a) High myoglobin and high mitochondria.
2. b) Low myoglobin and high mitochondria.
3. c) Low myoglobin and high sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. d) High myoglobin and high sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: c.

Question 33: Red muscle fibres can also be called aerobic muscles because they utilise a large amount of oxygen stored within them for:

1. a) Lactic acid fermentation.
2. b) ATP production.
3. c) Glycogenesis.
4. d) Gluconeogenesis.

Answer: b.

Question 34: The skeletal system is composed of a framework of bones and a few cartilages. How many bones are present in an adult human?

300. a) 300.
301. b) 206.
302. c) 256.
303. d) 200.

Answer: b.

Question 35: Bone has a very hard matrix due to the presence of:

1. a) Chondroitin salts.
2. b) Calcium salts.
3. c) Sodium chloride.
4. d) Potassium phosphate.

Answer: b.

Question 36: Cartilage has a slightly pliable matrix due to the presence of:

1. a) Calcium salts.
2. b) Chondroitin salts.
3. c) Keratin sulfate.
4. d) Hyaluronic acid.

Answer: b.

Question 37: The axial skeleton comprises how many bones distributed along the main axis of the body?

126. a) 126.
127. b) 80.
128. c) 60.
129. d) 100.

Answer: b.

Question 38: The skull is composed of two sets of bones: cranial and facial. What is the total number of bones in the human skull (excluding ear ossicles and hyoid)?

14. a) 14.
15. b) 8.
16. c) 22.
17. d) 29.

Answer: c.

Question 39: How many cranial bones form the hard protective outer covering for the brain?

8. a) 8.
9. b) 12.
10. c) 14.
11. d) 22.

Answer: a.

Question 40: The facial region is made up of how many skeletal elements that form the front part of the skull?

8. a) 8.
9. b) 12.
10. c) 14.
11. d) 22.

Answer: c.

Question 41: A single U-shaped bone present at the base of the buccal cavity is called:

1. a) Mandible.
2. b) Maxilla.
3. c) Hyoid.
4. d) Palatine.

Answer: c.

Question 42: Each middle ear contains three tiny bones collectively known as ear ossicles. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

1. a) Malleus.
2. b) Incus.
3. c) Stapes.
4. d) Sphenoid.

Answer: d.

Question 43: The human skull articulates with the superior region of the vertebral column with the help of how many occipital condyles?

1. a) One.
2. b) Two.
3. c) Three.
4. d) Four.

Answer: b.

Question 44: The vertebral column is formed by serially arranged units called vertebrae. How many vertebrae are present in an adult human?

24. a) 24.
25. b) 26.
26. c) 31.
27. d) 33.

Answer: b.

Question 45: The first vertebra, which articulates with the occipital condyles, is known as:

1. a) Axis.
2. b) Atlas.
3. c) Cervical vertebra 3.
4. d) Thoracic vertebra 1.

Answer: b.

Question 46: The typical vertebral formula for the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal regions in a human adult is:

1. a) C7, T12, L5, S1, Co1.
2. b) C7, T10, L5, S5, Co4.
3. c) C8, T12, L5, S1, Co1.
4. d) C7, T12, L4, S1, Co2.

Answer: a.

Question 47: The central hollow portion of a vertebra through which the spinal cord passes is called the:

1. a) Neural canal.
2. b) Intervertebral disc.
3. c) Transverse foramen.
4. d) Vertebral foramen.

Answer: a.

Question 48: Which bone serves as a flat bone on the ventral midline of the thorax?

1. a) Clavicle.
2. b) Scapula.
3. c) Sternum.
4. d) Rib.

Answer: c.

Question 49: How many pairs of ribs are present in the human body?

10. a) 10.
11. b) 12.
12. c) 14.
13. d) 24.

Answer: b.

Question 50: True ribs are attached dorsally to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum with the help of:

1. a) Fibrocartilage.
2. b) Elastic cartilage.
3. c) Hyaline cartilage.
4. d) Calcified cartilage.

Answer: c.

Question 51: Which pairs of ribs are known as vertebrochondral or false ribs?

1. a) 1st to 7th.
2. b) 8th, 9th, and 10th.
3. c) 11th and 12th.
4. d) 7th, 8th, and 9th.

Answer: b.

Question 52: The floating ribs are named so because they are not connected ventrally. Which pairs correspond to floating ribs?

1. a) 9th and 10th.
2. b) 10th and 11th.
3. c) 11th and 12th.
4. d) 8th and 9th.

Answer: c.

Question 53: The rib cage is formed by the association of which of the following skeletal structures?

1. a) Thoracic vertebrae, ribs, and sternum.
2. b) Cervical vertebrae, ribs, and sternum.
3. c) Lumbar vertebrae, ribs, and sternum.
4. d) Thoracic vertebrae, clavicle, and sternum.

Answer: a.

Question 54: The appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the limbs along with their respective girdles. How many bones are present in each limb?

20. a) 20.
21. b) 30.
22. c) 40.
23. d) 60.

Answer: b.

Question 55: The longest bone in the human body is present in the hindlimb and is called the:

1. a) Tibia.
2. b) Fibula.
3. c) Femur.
4. d) Humerus.

Answer: c.

Question 56: The bones of the forelimb include all of the following EXCEPT:

1. a) Humerus.
2. b) Radius and Ulna.
3. c) Carpals and Metacarpals.
4. d) Tarsals and Metatarsals.

Answer: d.

Question 57: How many carpal bones (wrist bones) are present in each human forelimb?

5. a) 5.
6. b) 7.
7. c) 8.
8. d) 14.

Answer: c.

Question 58: The phalangeal formula for the human hand (fingers) is:

3. a) 2, 3, 3, 3, 3.
4. b) 3, 3, 3, 3, 3.
5. c) 2, 2, 3, 3, 3.
6. d) 3, 2, 3, 3, 3.

Answer: a.

Question 59: A cup-shaped bone that covers the knee ventrally is called the:

1. a) Patella.
2. b) Calcaneus.
3. c) Talus.
4. d) Navicular.

Answer: a.

Question 60: The tarsals (ankle bones) in each hindlimb amount to a total number of:

5. a) 5.
6. b) 7.
7. c) 8.
8. d) 14.

Answer: b.

Question 61: The pectoral girdle is composed of two halves, each containing which two bones?

1. a) Ilium and Ischium.
2. b) Scapula and Clavicle.
3. c) Radius and Ulna.
4. d) Sternum and Scapula.

Answer: b.

Question 62: The scapula is a large triangular flat bone situated in the dorsal part of the thorax between the levels of the:

1. a) 1st and 5th ribs.
2. b) 2nd and 7th ribs.
3. c) 3rd and 8th ribs.
4. d) 4th and 9th ribs.

Answer: b.

Question 63: The elevated ridge on the scapula is known as the spine, which projects as a flat, expanded process called the:

1. a) Coracoid process.
2. b) Acromion.
3. c) Glenoid cavity.
4. d) Olecranon process.

Answer: b.

Question 64: The depression below the acromion that articulates with the head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint is the:

1. a) Acetabulum.
2. b) Glenoid cavity.
3. c) Obturator foramen.
4. d) Symphysis pubis.

Answer: b.

Question 65: Each clavicle is a long slender bone with two curvatures, commonly referred to as the:

1. a) Shoulder blade.
2. b) Collar bone.
3. c) Breast bone.
4. d) Thigh bone.

Answer: b.

Question 66: The pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones. Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of three bones named:

1. a) Ilium, ischium, and pubis.
2. b) Scapula, clavicle, and sternum.
3. c) Maxilla, mandible, and palatine.
4. d) Talus, calcaneus, and cuboid.

Answer: a.

Question 67: At the point of fusion of the ilium, ischium, and pubis, a cavity is formed to which the thigh bone articulates. This cavity is the:

1. a) Glenoid cavity.
2. b) Acetabulum.
3. c) Pelvic inlet.
4. d) Greater sciatic notch.

Answer: b.

Question 68: The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet ventrally to form the pubic symphysis, which contains:

1. a) Hyaline cartilage.
2. b) Elastic cartilage.
3. c) Fibrous cartilage.
4. d) Synovial fluid.

Answer: c.

Question 69: Joints are points of contact between bones or between bones and cartilages. They are classified into three major structural forms. Which is NOT one of them?

1. a) Fibrous joints.
2. b) Cartilaginous joints.
3. c) Synovial joints.
4. d) Muscular joints.

Answer: d.

Question 70: Fibrous joints do not allow any movement. These joints are prominently seen in the:

1. a) Knee joint.
2. b) Flat skull bones fusing to form the cranium.
3. c) Joint between adjacent vertebrae.
4. d) Shoulder joint.

Answer: b.

Question 71: The sutures in the skull are an example of which type of joint?

1. a) Synovial joint.
2. b) Cartilaginous joint.
3. c) Fibrous joint.
4. d) Gliding joint.

Answer: c.

Question 72: In cartilaginous joints, the bones involved are joined together with the help of cartilages. This joint permits:

1. a) No movement.
2. b) Limited movement.
3. c) Considerable movement.
4. d) Free movement in all directions.

Answer: b.

Question 73: The joint between the adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral column is an example of a:

1. a) Synovial joint.
2. b) Fibrous joint.
3. c) Cartilaginous joint.
4. d) Pivot joint.

Answer: c.

Question 74: Synovial joints are characterized by the presence of a fluid-filled synovial cavity between the articulating surfaces. This allows for:

1. a) Zero movement.
2. b) Limited movement.
3. c) Considerable movement.
4. d) Fusion of bones over time.

Answer: c.

Question 75: The joint between the humerus and the pectoral girdle is an example of a:

1. a) Hinge joint.
2. b) Pivot joint.
3. c) Ball and socket joint.
4. d) Saddle joint.

Answer: c.

Question 76: The knee joint is an example of which type of synovial joint?

1. a) Ball and socket joint.
2. b) Hinge joint.
3. c) Gliding joint.
4. d) Pivot joint.

Answer: b.

Question 77: The joint between the atlas and axis vertebrae permits rotational movement and is classified as a:

1. a) Gliding joint.
2. b) Saddle joint.
3. c) Pivot joint.
4. d) Fibrous joint.

Answer: c.

Question 78: The joint between the carpals is uniquely characterized as a:

1. a) Pivot joint.
2. b) Gliding joint.
3. c) Hinge joint.
4. d) Saddle joint.

Answer: b.

Question 79: The joint between the carpal and metacarpal of the human thumb allows for specialized movements and is called a:

1. a) Saddle joint.
2. b) Gliding joint.
3. c) Hinge joint.
4. d) Ball and socket joint.

Answer: a.

Question 80: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder primarily affecting the:

1. a) Central nervous system.
2. b) Neuromuscular junction.
3. c) Sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. d) Synovial joints.

Answer: b.

Question 81: The pathogenesis of Myasthenia gravis leads to which of the following classical symptoms?

1. a) Rapid spasms and wild tetanic contractions.
2. b) Inflammation of joints due to uric acid accumulation.
3. c) Fatigue, weakening, and paralysis of skeletal muscle.
4. d) Progressive degeneration of smooth muscles.

Answer: c.

Question 82: Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder characterized by the progressive degeneration of:

1. a) Cardiac muscle.
2. b) Skeletal muscle.
3. c) Visceral muscle.
4. d) Motor neurons.

Answer: b.

Question 83: Tetany refers to rapid spasms (wild contractions) in muscle tissues caused primarily by:

1. a) Low calcium levels in body fluid.
2. b) High calcium levels in body fluid.
3. c) Accumulation of lactic acid in muscles.
4. d) Breakdown of the neuromuscular junction.

Answer: a.

Question 84: Arthritis is a general medical term defined as the:

1. a) Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles.
2. b) Inflammation of joints.
3. c) Autoimmune destruction of the neuromuscular junction.
4. d) Decreased bone mass.

Answer: b.

Question 85: Osteoporosis is an age-related disorder characterized by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures. A common cause of this in females is:

1. a) Increased levels of estrogen.
2. b) Decreased levels of estrogen.
3. c) Accumulation of uric acid.
4. d) Excessive muscle contraction.

Answer: b.

Question 86: Gout is an inflammatory joint condition caused by the accumulation of:

1. a) Calcium carbonate crystals.
2. b) Uric acid crystals.
3. c) Lactic acid crystals.
4. d) Chondroitin sulfate.

Answer: b.

Question 87: Assertion (A): In a resting muscle fibre, the H-zone is clearly visible. Reason (R): The H-zone is the central gap between the ends of thin filaments overlapping the thick filaments.

1. a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. c) A is true, but R is false.
4. d) Both A and R are false.

Answer: a.

Question 88: Assertion (A): Red muscle fibres can perform sustained work for a long period without fatigue. Reason (R): Red muscle fibres depend largely on anaerobic glycolysis for ATP production.

1. a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. c) A is true, but R is false.
4. d) A is false, but R is true.

Answer: c.

Question 89: Which of the following statements about visceral muscles is INCORRECT?

1. a) They do not exhibit any striation.
2. b) Their activities are not under the voluntary control of the nervous system.
3. c) They assist in the transportation of food through the digestive tract.
4. d) They are structurally composed of cylindrical, multinucleated cells.

Answer: d.

Question 90: Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I (Bone) - Column II (Number). P) Cranial bones - i) 14. Q) Facial bones - ii) 12 pairs. R) Ribs - iii) 8. S) Vertebrae - iv) 26.

1. a) P-iii, Q-i, R-ii, S-iv.
2. b) P-i, Q-iii, R-iv, S-ii.
3. c) P-iii, Q-i, R-iv, S-ii.
4. d) P-i, Q-ii, R-iii, S-iv.

Answer: a.

Question 91: Which of the following best describes the structural unit of a skeletal muscle?

1. a) Sarcomere.
2. b) Muscle fibre.
3. c) Fascicle.
4. d) Myofibril.

Answer: b.

Question 92: The masking of active sites on actin for myosin is mediated by which complex in the resting state?

1. a) Troponin-Tropomyosin complex.
2. b) Heavy meromyosin.
3. c) Calcium-calmodulin complex.
4. d) Calsequestrin.

Answer: a.

Question 93: During a maximum muscle contraction, which of the following bands may completely disappear?

1. a) A-band.
2. b) Z-line.
3. c) I-band.
4. d) M-line.

Answer: c.

Question 94: Identify the correct sequence of events in muscle contraction: 1) Release of Calcium ions 2) Neural signal at NMJ 3) Binding of ATP 4) Cross-bridge formation.

3. a) 2, 1, 4, 3.
4. b) 1, 2, 3, 4.
5. c) 2, 4, 1, 3.
6. d) 2, 3, 1, 4.

Answer: a.

Question 95: Which pair of bones forms the ball and socket joint of the pelvic girdle?

1. a) Humerus and Scapula.
2. b) Femur and Acetabulum of Coxal bone.
3. c) Radius and Ulna.
4. d) Femur and Tibia.

Answer: b.

Question 96: Assertion (A): The 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are called floating ribs. Reason (R): They are connected ventrally to the sternum by hyaline cartilage.

1. a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. c) A is true, but R is false.
4. d) Both A and R are false.

Answer: c.

Question 97: Which of the following is an example of an age-related bone disorder?

1. a) Muscular dystrophy.
2. b) Tetany.
3. c) Osteoporosis.
4. d) Myasthenia gravis.

Answer: c.

Question 98: The acromion process is classically associated with the articulation of the:

1. a) Scapula and humerus.
2. b) Clavicle and sternum.
3. c) Scapula and clavicle.
4. d) Ilium and pubis.

Answer: c.

Question 99: During the recovery phase of muscle contraction, calcium ions are pumped back to the sarcoplasmic cisternae. This process requires:

1. a) ATP.
2. b) Facilitated diffusion.
3. c) Osmosis.
4. d) Simple diffusion.

Answer: a.

Question 100: Which of the following combinations perfectly matches the joint type with its location?

1. a) Pivot joint - between carpal and metacarpal of thumb.
2. b) Saddle joint - between atlas and axis.
3. c) Gliding joint - between the carpals.
4. d) Fibrous joint - pubic symphysis.

Answer: c.

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