NCERT NEET Biology English Medium Part-1 | Chapter 3 : Plant Kingdom.

NCERT NEET Biology English Medium Part-1 | Chapter 3 : Plant Kingdom.

Question 1. Which classification system is based on evolutionary relationships between various organisms?

  1. a) Artificial classification system.
  2. b) Natural classification system.
  3. c) Phylogenetic classification system.
  4. d) Sexual classification system.

Answer: c.

Question 2. Cytotaxonomy is based on which of the following cytological informations?

  1. a) Chromosome number.
  2. b) Chromosome structure.
  3. c) Chromosome behaviour.
  4. d) All of the above.

Answer: d.

Question 3. The natural system of classification for flowering plants was given by which of the following scientists?

  1. a) Carolus Linnaeus.
  2. b) George Bentham and Joseph Dalton Hooker.
  3. c) R.H. Whittaker.
  4. d) Aristotle.

Answer: b.

Question 4. Which branch of taxonomy uses chemical constituents of the plant to resolve confusions?

  1. a) Chemotaxonomy.
  2. b) Cytotaxonomy.
  3. c) Numerical taxonomy.
  4. d) Classical taxonomy.

Answer: a.

Question 5. In numerical taxonomy, how are the characters and states evaluated?

  1. a) By chemical analysis.
  2. b) By assigning numbers and codes to all observable characters.
  3. c) By sequencing DNA.
  4. d) By observing chromosome behaviour.

Answer: b.

Question 6. Algae are largely found in which of the following habitats?

  1. a) Terrestrial.
  2. b) Aquatic (both fresh water and marine).
  3. c) Desert.
  4. d) Aerial.

Answer: b.

Question 7. The form and size of algae is highly variable. Which of the following is a colonial alga?

  1. a) Chlamydomonas.
  2. b) Volvox.
  3. c) Ulothrix.
  4. d) Spirogyra.

Answer: b.

Question 8. Which of the following algae forms massive plant bodies in the ocean?

  1. a) Kelps.
  2. b) Volvox.
  3. c) Ulothrix.
  4. d) Spirogyra.

Answer: a.

Question 9. Vegetative reproduction in algae primarily takes place by which method?

  1. a) Budding.
  2. b) Fragmentation.
  3. c) Fission.
  4. d) Akinetes.

Answer: b.

Question 10. Asexual reproduction in most algae is by the production of different types of spores. Which is the most common type?

  1. a) Aplanospores.
  2. b) Zoospores.
  3. c) Hypnospores.
  4. d) Endospores.

Answer: b.

Question 11. Isogamous reproduction, where flagellated gametes are similar in size, is found in which organism?

  1. a) Spirogyra.
  2. b) Volvox.
  3. c) Ulothrix.
  4. d) Fucus.

Answer: c.

Question 12. Reproduction in Spirogyra is characterized by which of the following?

  1. a) Isogamous and flagellated gametes.
  2. b) Isogamous and non-flagellated gametes.
  3. c) Anisogamous gametes.
  4. d) Oogamous gametes.

Answer: b.

Question 13. Oogamous reproduction involves the fusion of which type of gametes?

  1. a) One large, static female gamete and a smaller, motile male gamete.
  2. b) Two similar, motile gametes.
  3. c) Two dissimilar, motile gametes.
  4. d) One small, static female gamete and a larger, motile male gamete.

Answer: a.

Question 14. Which of the following pairs of algae exhibit oogamous reproduction?

  1. a) Ulothrix and Spirogyra.
  2. b) Volvox and Fucus.
  3. c) Chlamydomonas and Eudorina.
  4. d) Porphyra and Dictyota.

Answer: b.

Question 15. At least what percentage of total carbon dioxide fixation on earth is carried out by algae through photosynthesis?

  1. a) 10 percent.
  2. b) 25 percent.
  3. c) 50 percent.
  4. d) 75 percent.

Answer: c.

Question 16. Which among the following are marine algae used as food?

  1. a) Porphyra, Laminaria, and Sargassum.
  2. b) Chara, Volvox, and Spirogyra.
  3. c) Ulothrix, Eudorina, and Fucus.
  4. d) Gelidium, Gracilaria, and Chlorella.

Answer: a.

Question 17. Algin and carrageen are hydrocolloids obtained respectively from which algae?

  1. a) Brown algae and Red algae.
  2. b) Red algae and Brown algae.
  3. c) Green algae and Brown algae.
  4. d) Red algae and Green algae.

Answer: a.

Question 18. Agar, one of the commercial products used to grow microbes, is obtained from which organisms?

  1. a) Laminaria and Sargassum.
  2. b) Gelidium and Gracilaria.
  3. c) Porphyra and Polysiphonia.
  4. d) Chlorella and Spirulina.

Answer: b.

Question 19. Which unicellular alga is rich in proteins and used as a food supplement even by space travellers?

  1. a) Ulothrix.
  2. b) Chlorella.
  3. c) Sargassum.
  4. d) Porphyra.

Answer: b.

Question 20. The members of Chlorophyceae are commonly called green algae. What is the main reason for their grass-green colour?

  1. a) Dominance of pigments chlorophyll a and b.
  2. b) Dominance of chlorophyll a and c.
  3. c) Presence of fucoxanthin.
  4. d) Presence of phycoerythrin.

Answer: a.

Question 21. In green algae, the chloroplasts may be of various shapes. Which of the following shapes is NOT typically found in green algae chloroplasts?

  1. a) Discoid.
  2. b) Plate-like.
  3. c) Reticulate.
  4. d) Star-shaped.

Answer: d.

Question 22. Most green algae have one or more storage bodies located in the chloroplasts. What are these bodies called?

  1. a) Starch grains.
  2. b) Pyrenoids.
  3. c) Elaioplasts.
  4. d) Aleuroplasts.

Answer: b.

Question 23. Pyrenoids, the storage bodies in green algae, contain which components?

  1. a) Only starch.
  2. b) Protein besides starch.
  3. c) Oil droplets only.
  4. d) Glycogen.

Answer: b.

Question 24. Green algae usually have a rigid cell wall. What are the inner and outer layers of this cell wall composed of?

  1. a) Inner cellulose, outer pectose.
  2. b) Inner pectose, outer cellulose.
  3. c) Inner chitin, outer cellulose.
  4. d) Inner peptidoglycan, outer algin.

Answer: a.

Question 25. Members of Phaeophyceae or brown algae are primarily found in which habitat?

  1. a) Fresh water.
  2. b) Terrestrial environments.
  3. c) Marine habitats.
  4. d) Deserts.

Answer: c.

Question 26. Which pigments are primarily responsible for the colour of brown algae?

  1. a) Chlorophyll a, b, and xanthophylls.
  2. b) Chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids, and xanthophylls.
  3. c) Chlorophyll a, d, and phycoerythrin.
  4. d) Bacteriochlorophylls.

Answer: b.

Question 27. The amount of which specific xanthophyll pigment dictates the varying shades of brown in Phaeophyceae?

  1. a) Lutein.
  2. b) Zeaxanthin.
  3. c) Fucoxanthin.
  4. d) Violaxanthin.

Answer: c.

Question 28. In brown algae, food is stored as complex carbohydrates, which may be in the form of what?

  1. a) Starch and glycogen.
  2. b) Floridean starch.
  3. c) Laminarin or mannitol.
  4. d) Paramylon.

Answer: c.

Question 29. The vegetative cells of brown algae have a cellulosic wall covered on the outside by a gelatinous coating of what substance?

  1. a) Pectin.
  2. b) Algin.
  3. c) Agar.
  4. d) Carrageen.

Answer: b.

Question 30. The plant body of a brown alga is typically attached to the substratum by a holdfast, and has a stalk and a leaf-like photosynthetic organ. What are these stalk and leaf-like organs called respectively?

  1. a) Stipe and frond.
  2. b) Seta and capsule.
  3. c) Rhizoid and thallus.
  4. d) Petiole and lamina.

Answer: a.

Question 31. The zoospores of brown algae responsible for asexual reproduction possess which specific characteristics?

  1. a) Pear-shaped with two equal apical flagella.
  2. b) Pear-shaped with two unequal laterally attached flagella.
  3. c) Spherical with multiple apical flagella.
  4. d) Non-motile.

Answer: b.

Question 32. Dictyota, Ectocarpus, Laminaria, Sargassum, and Fucus belong to which class of algae?

  1. a) Chlorophyceae.
  2. b) Rhodophyceae.
  3. c) Phaeophyceae.
  4. d) Cyanophyceae.

Answer: c.

Question 33. The members of Rhodophyceae are commonly called red algae because of the predominance of which pigment in their body?

  1. a) Fucoxanthin.
  2. b) r-phycoerythrin.
  3. c) Chlorophyll d.
  4. d) Carotene.

Answer: b.

Question 34. Where do the majority of the red algae occur?

  1. a) Fresh water lakes.
  2. b) Marine environments with greater concentrations found in the warmer areas.
  3. c) Marine environments exclusively in the cold depths.
  4. d) Terrestrial moist soils.

Answer: b.

Question 35. The food in red algae is stored as floridean starch. This starch is very similar in structure to which of the following?

  1. a) Amylose and amylopectin.
  2. b) Glycogen and amylopectin.
  3. c) Inulin and cellulose.
  4. d) Laminarin and mannitol.

Answer: b.

Question 36. How do red algae typically reproduce asexually and sexually?

  1. a) Asexually by motile spores and sexually by motile gametes.
  2. b) Asexually by non-motile spores and sexually by non-motile gametes.
  3. c) Asexually by motile spores and sexually by non-motile gametes.
  4. d) Asexually by non-motile spores and sexually by motile gametes.

Answer: b.

Question 37. Sexual reproduction in Rhodophyceae is strictly of which type?

  1. a) Isogamous.
  2. b) Anisogamous.
  3. c) Oogamous.
  4. d) Hologamous.

Answer: c.

Question 38. Which of the following is a member of Rhodophyceae?

  1. a) Polysiphonia.
  2. b) Sargassum.
  3. c) Ectocarpus.
  4. d) Volvox.

Answer: a.

Question 39. Which of the following plant groups are often referred to as the 'amphibians of the plant kingdom'?

  1. a) Algae.
  2. b) Bryophytes.
  3. c) Pteridophytes.
  4. d) Gymnosperms.

Answer: b.

Question 40. Why are bryophytes called amphibians of the plant kingdom?

  1. a) Because they can live only in water.
  2. b) Because they live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.
  3. c) Because they have lungs and gills.
  4. d) Because they have vascular tissues like aquatic plants.

Answer: b.

Question 41. The main plant body of a bryophyte is haploid. It produces gametes, hence is called a what?

  1. a) Sporophyte.
  2. b) Gametophyte.
  3. c) Prothallus.
  4. d) Protonema.

Answer: b.

Question 42. In bryophytes, what are the male and female sex organs called respectively?

  1. a) Antheridium and archegonium.
  2. b) Archegonium and antheridium.
  3. c) Microsporangium and megasporangium.
  4. d) Stamen and carpel.

Answer: a.

Question 43. What is the shape of the archegonium in bryophytes?

  1. a) Spherical.
  2. b) Flask-shaped.
  3. c) Club-shaped.
  4. d) Ribbon-shaped.

Answer: b.

Question 44. In bryophytes, the zygote does not undergo reduction division immediately. Instead, it produces a multicellular body known as what?

  1. a) Protonema.
  2. b) Gametophyte.
  3. c) Sporophyte.
  4. d) Gemma.

Answer: c.

Question 45. Is the sporophyte in bryophytes free-living?

  1. a) Yes, it is fully independent and photosynthetic.
  2. b) No, it is attached to the photosynthetic gametophyte and derives nourishment from it.
  3. c) It is free-living initially but later depends on the gametophyte.
  4. d) It is free-living only in mosses.

Answer: b.

Question 46. Peat, which has long been used as fuel, is provided by species of which bryophyte?

  1. a) Marchantia.
  2. b) Polytrichum.
  3. c) Sphagnum.
  4. d) Funaria.

Answer: c.

Question 47. Why are mosses along with lichens considered to have great ecological importance?

  1. a) They are the first organisms to colonise rocks and make the substrate suitable for higher plants.
  2. b) They fix atmospheric nitrogen efficiently.
  3. c) They are the primary producers in marine ecosystems.
  4. d) They prevent soil erosion by producing large amounts of humus.

Answer: a.

Question 48. The plant body of a liverwort is thalloid. Which of the following is a classic example of a liverwort?

  1. a) Funaria.
  2. b) Marchantia.
  3. c) Sphagnum.
  4. d) Polytrichum.

Answer: b.

Question 49. Asexual reproduction in liverworts takes place by fragmentation of thalli or by the formation of specialised structures called what?

  1. a) Gemmae.
  2. b) Sori.
  3. c) Protonema.
  4. d) Bulbils.

Answer: a.

Question 50. Gemmae are characterized as which of the following?

  1. a) Red, multicellular, sexual buds.
  2. b) Green, multicellular, asexual buds.
  3. c) Brown, unicellular, asexual spores.
  4. d) Green, unicellular, sexual spores.

Answer: b.

Question 51. In liverworts, gemmae develop in small receptacles called gemma cups located where?

  1. a) On the roots.
  2. b) On the thalli.
  3. c) On the sporophyte.
  4. d) On the seta.

Answer: b.

Question 52. The sporophyte in liverworts is differentiated into which parts?

  1. a) Root, stem, and leaves.
  2. b) Foot, seta, and capsule.
  3. c) Holdfast, stipe, and frond.
  4. d) Rhizome, petiole, and lamina.

Answer: b.

Question 53. Spores are produced within the capsule in bryophytes after which cell division process?

  1. a) Mitosis.
  2. b) Meiosis.
  3. c) Amitosis.
  4. d) Binary fission.

Answer: b.

Question 54. The predominant stage of the life cycle of a moss is the gametophyte. What is the first stage of the moss gametophyte called?

  1. a) Prothallus stage.
  2. b) Protonema stage.
  3. c) Leafy stage.
  4. d) Sporophytic stage.

Answer: b.

Question 55. The protonema stage in mosses develops directly from what?

  1. a) Zygote.
  2. b) Spore.
  3. c) Gemma.
  4. d) Gamete.

Answer: b.

Question 56. The leafy stage of the moss gametophyte develops from what?

  1. a) The primary protonema as a lateral bud.
  2. b) The secondary protonema as a lateral bud.
  3. c) Directly from the spore.
  4. d) Directly from the zygote.

Answer: b.

Question 57. Which stage in mosses bears the sex organs?

  1. a) Primary protonema.
  2. b) Leafy stage.
  3. c) Sporophyte.
  4. d) Spore mother cell.

Answer: b.

Question 58. Vegetative reproduction in mosses is by fragmentation and budding in which stage?

  1. a) Primary protonema.
  2. b) Secondary protonema.
  3. c) Leafy stage.
  4. d) Sporophyte.

Answer: b.

Question 59. Funaria, Polytrichum, and Sphagnum are examples of which group?

  1. a) Liverworts.
  2. b) Mosses.
  3. c) Hornworts.
  4. d) Ferns.

Answer: b.

Question 60. The Pteridophytes include which of the following plants?

  1. a) Horsetails and ferns.
  2. b) Liverworts and mosses.
  3. c) Cycads and pines.
  4. d) Monocots and dicots.

Answer: a.

Question 61. Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to possess which of the following?

  1. a) Flowers and fruits.
  2. b) Seeds.
  3. c) Vascular tissues (xylem and phloem).
  4. d) True roots only.

Answer: c.

Question 62. In pteridophytes, the main plant body is a sporophyte. How is it differentiated?

  1. a) Into holdfast, stipe, and frond.
  2. b) Into true root, stem, and leaves.
  3. c) Into foot, seta, and capsule.
  4. d) Into primary and secondary protonema.

Answer: b.

Question 63. The leaves in pteridophyta may be small (microphylls) or large (macrophylls). Selaginella and ferns respectively possess which types?

  1. a) Selaginella has macrophylls, ferns have microphylls.
  2. b) Selaginella has microphylls, ferns have macrophylls.
  3. c) Both have microphylls.
  4. d) Both have macrophylls.

Answer: b.

Question 64. In pteridophytes, sporophytes bear sporangia that are subtended by leaf-like appendages called what?

  1. a) Sporophylls.
  2. b) Bracts.
  3. c) Sori.
  4. d) Fronds.

Answer: a.

Question 65. In some pteridophytes like Selaginella and Equisetum, sporophylls may form distinct compact structures called what?

  1. a) Sori or indusia.
  2. b) Strobili or cones.
  3. c) Capsules or sporangia.
  4. d) Nodes and internodes.

Answer: b.

Question 66. The spores in pteridophytes germinate to give rise to inconspicuous, small but multicellular, free-living, mostly photosynthetic thalloid gametophytes called what?

  1. a) Protonema.
  2. b) Prothallus.
  3. c) Suspensor.
  4. d) Endosperm.

Answer: b.

Question 67. Why is the spread of living pteridophytes limited and restricted to narrow geographical regions?

  1. a) Because they require extremely high temperatures to survive.
  2. b) Because their gametophytes require cool, damp, shady places to grow and they need water for fertilization.
  3. c) Because their seeds are not dispersed efficiently.
  4. d) Because they lack vascular tissues.

Answer: b.

Question 68. The majority of the pteridophytes are homosporous. What does this mean?

  1. a) All the spores are of similar kinds.
  2. b) They produce two kinds of spores, macro and micro.
  3. c) They do not produce spores.
  4. d) Their spores are fused together.

Answer: a.

Question 69. Which of the following genera of pteridophytes are heterosporous, meaning they produce two kinds of spores, macro (large) and micro (small) spores?

  1. a) Dryopteris and Pteris.
  2. b) Selaginella and Salvinia.
  3. c) Equisetum and Psilotum.
  4. d) Adiantum and Lycopodium.

Answer: b.

Question 70. In heterosporous pteridophytes, what do the megaspores and microspores germinate into respectively?

  1. a) Male and female gametophytes.
  2. b) Female and male gametophytes.
  3. c) Sporophytes and gametophytes.
  4. d) Roots and shoots.

Answer: b.

Question 71. The development of the zygote into young embryos takes place within the female gametophyte in heterosporous pteridophytes. This event is a precursor to which significant evolutionary habit?

  1. a) Aquatic habit.
  2. b) Parasitic habit.
  3. c) Seed habit.
  4. d) Climbing habit.

Answer: c.

Question 72. Pteridophytes are classified into four classes. Which of the following correctly pairs a class with its example?

  1. a) Psilopsida - Lycopodium.
  2. b) Lycopsida - Psilotum.
  3. c) Sphenopsida - Equisetum.
  4. d) Pteropsida - Selaginella.

Answer: c.

Question 73. Which of the following ferns is an example of the class Pteropsida?

  1. a) Dryopteris.
  2. b) Selaginella.
  3. c) Lycopodium.
  4. d) Equisetum.

Answer: a.

Question 74. Gymnosperms are plants in which the ovules are NOT enclosed by any ovary wall. What happens to the ovules post-fertilization?

  1. a) They become fruits.
  2. b) They degenerate.
  3. c) They remain exposed as naked seeds.
  4. d) They fuse to form a cone.

Answer: c.

Question 75. Sequoia is one of the tallest tree species in the world. To which group does it belong?

  1. a) Angiosperms.
  2. b) Pteridophytes.
  3. c) Bryophytes.
  4. d) Gymnosperms.

Answer: d.

Question 76. The roots of gymnosperms are generally tap roots. In which genus do roots have fungal associations in the form of mycorrhiza?

  1. a) Cycas.
  2. b) Pinus.
  3. c) Ginkgo.
  4. d) Sequoia.

Answer: b.

Question 77. In Cycas, small specialized roots called coralloid roots are associated with which organisms?

  1. a) N2-fixing Cyanobacteria.
  2. b) Mycorrhizal fungi.
  3. c) Rhizobium bacteria.
  4. d) Frankia.

Answer: a.

Question 78. Which of the following features describes the stems of Cycas and Pinus respectively?

  1. a) Branched in Cycas, unbranched in Pinus.
  2. b) Unbranched in Cycas, branched in Pinus.
  3. c) Branched in both.
  4. d) Unbranched in both.

Answer: b.

Question 79. The leaves in gymnosperms are well-adapted to withstand extremes of temperature, humidity, and wind. In conifers, what adaptation helps reduce water loss?

  1. a) Broad lamina.
  2. b) Needle-like leaves.
  3. c) Presence of extensive spongy mesophyll.
  4. d) Absence of cuticle.

Answer: b.

Question 80. Gymnosperms are heterosporous. What kinds of spores do they produce?

  1. a) Haploid microspores and megaspores.
  2. b) Diploid microspores and megaspores.
  3. c) Triploid spores.
  4. d) Only homospores.

Answer: a.

Question 81. In gymnosperms, the microspores develop into a highly reduced male gametophyte. What is this reduced male gametophyte called?

  1. a) Microsporangium.
  2. b) Pollen grain.
  3. c) Antheridium.
  4. d) Prothallus.

Answer: b.

Question 82. In which gymnosperm are the male and female strobili (cones) borne on the same tree?

  1. a) Cycas.
  2. b) Pinus.
  3. c) Marchantia.
  4. d) Ginkgo.

Answer: b.

Question 83. The megaspore mother cell in gymnosperms is differentiated from one of the cells of the nucellus. The nucellus is protected by envelopes and the composite structure is called a what?

  1. a) Ovary.
  2. b) Ovule.
  3. c) Megasporangium.
  4. d) Seed.

Answer: b.

Question 84. The megaspore mother cell divides meiotically to form four megaspores. How many of these usually develop into a multicellular female gametophyte?

  1. a) One.
  2. b) Two.
  3. c) Three.
  4. d) Four.

Answer: a.

Question 85. Unlike bryophytes and pteridophytes, the male and female gametophytes in gymnosperms lack which characteristic?

  1. a) They do not produce gametes.
  2. b) They do not have an independent free-living existence.
  3. c) They are not haploid.
  4. d) They lack cellular organization.

Answer: b.

Question 86. In angiosperms, the pollen grains and ovules are developed in specialized structures called what?

  1. a) Cones.
  2. b) Strobili.
  3. c) Flowers.
  4. d) Sori.

Answer: c.

Question 87. Angiosperms are divided into two classes: the dicotyledons and the monocotyledons. Dicotyledons are typically characterized by having how many cotyledons in their seeds?

  1. a) One.
  2. b) Two.
  3. c) Three.
  4. d) None.

Answer: b.

Question 88. The male sex organ in a flower is the stamen. What does a typical stamen consist of?

  1. a) A slender filament with an anther at the tip.
  2. b) An ovary, style, and stigma.
  3. c) A petiole and a lamina.
  4. d) A pedicel and a receptacle.

Answer: a.

Question 89. The female sex organ in a flower is the pistil. What does a pistil consist of?

  1. a) Filament, anther, and pollen.
  2. b) Swollen ovary at its base, a long slender style, and a stigma.
  3. c) Corolla, calyx, and androecium.
  4. d) Sepals and petals.

Answer: b.

Question 90. Within the ovary of an angiosperm flower, what structures are present?

  1. a) Microsporangia.
  2. b) Ovules.
  3. c) Antherozoids.
  4. d) Gemmae.

Answer: b.

Question 91. The highly reduced female gametophyte present inside the ovule of an angiosperm is termed as what?

  1. a) Endosperm.
  2. b) Embryo sac.
  3. c) Prothallus.
  4. d) Nucellus.

Answer: b.

Question 92. Each embryo sac typically has a three-celled egg apparatus. What does this egg apparatus consist of?

  1. a) One egg cell and two synergids.
  2. b) Three antipodal cells.
  3. c) Two polar nuclei and one egg cell.
  4. d) Three synergids.

Answer: a.

Question 93. In the angiosperm life cycle, one male gamete fuses with the egg cell to form a zygote (syngamy). What does the other male gamete fuse with?

  1. a) Antipodal cells.
  2. b) Synergids.
  3. c) Diploid secondary nucleus.
  4. d) Central vacuole.

Answer: c.

Question 94. The fusion of the second male gamete with the diploid secondary nucleus produces a triploid structure. What is this structure called?

  1. a) Primary endosperm nucleus (PEN).
  2. b) Secondary zygote.
  3. c) Proembryo.
  4. d) Suspensor.

Answer: a.

Question 95. Because two fusions (syngamy and triple fusion) occur in an angiosperm embryo sac, this unique event is termed as what?

  1. a) Double fertilization.
  2. b) Parthenogenesis.
  3. c) Apomixis.
  4. d) Polyembryony.

Answer: a.

Question 96. What is the fate of the synergids and antipodals after fertilization in angiosperms?

  1. a) They develop into the seed coat.
  2. b) They degenerate.
  3. c) They form the fruit wall.
  4. d) They fuse to form the endosperm.

Answer: b.

Question 97. During the life cycle of any sexually reproducing plant, there is an alternation of generations between gamete producing haploid gametophyte and spore producing diploid sporophyte. In a haplontic life cycle, which is the dominant phase?

  1. a) The diploid sporophyte.
  2. b) The free-living gametophyte.
  3. c) Both are equally dominant.
  4. d) Neither is dominant.

Answer: b.

Question 98. Which of the following organisms exhibit a haplontic life cycle?

  1. a) Volvox, Spirogyra, and some species of Chlamydomonas.
  2. b) Fucus and all seed-bearing plants.
  3. c) Bryophytes and Pteridophytes.
  4. d) Pinus and Cycas.

Answer: a.

Question 99. Seed-bearing plants like gymnosperms and angiosperms follow which pattern of life cycle?

  1. a) Haplontic.
  2. b) Diplontic.
  3. c) Haplo-diplontic.
  4. d) Isomorphic.

Answer: b.

Question 100. Bryophytes and pteridophytes exhibit an intermediate condition where both phases are multicellular. What is this life cycle pattern called?

  1. a) Haplontic.
  2. b) Diplontic.
  3. c) Haplo-diplontic.
  4. d) Triplontic.

Answer: c.


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