NCERT NEET Biology English Medium Part-1 | Chapter 32 : Biodiversity and conservation

NCERT NEET Biology English Medium Part-1 | Chapter 32 : Biodiversity and conservation

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Question 1. The term 'Biodiversity' was popularized by which of the following sociobiologists to describe the combined diversity at all the levels of biological organisation?

1. Paul Ehrlich.
2. Robert May.
3. Edward Wilson.
4. Alexander von Humboldt.

Answer: c. Edward Wilson.

Question 2. Which of the following is an example of genetic diversity within a single species in India?

1. 1000 varieties of mango.
2. 50,000 different strains of rice.
3. High diversity of amphibians in Western Ghats.
4. Rauwolfia vomitoria producing varying concentrations of reserpine.

Answer: d. Rauwolfia vomitoria producing varying concentrations of reserpine.

Question 3. The Western Ghats have a greater amphibian species diversity than the Eastern Ghats. This is an example of which level of biodiversity?

1. Genetic diversity.
2. Species diversity.
3. Ecological diversity.
4. Biome diversity.

Answer: b. Species diversity.

Question 4. India has a greater ecological diversity than a Scandinavian country like Norway because of the presence of:

1. High genetic variation in crops.
2. Deserts, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries, and alpine meadows.
3. A large number of endemic species.
4. High altitudinal gradients in the Himalayas.

Answer: b. Deserts, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries, and alpine meadows.

Question 5. According to the IUCN (2004), the total number of plant and animal species described so far is slightly more than:

1. 1.5 million.
2. 7 million.
3. 1.5 billion.
4. 20 million.

Answer: a. 1.5 million.

Question 6. Robert May places the global species diversity estimate at about:

1. 1.5 million.
2. 7 million.
3. 20 million.
4. 50 million.

Answer: b. 7 million.

Question 7. Among all the recorded species on Earth, animals comprise more than 70 per cent, while plants comprise no more than:

1. 10 per cent.
2. 15 per cent.
3. 22 per cent.
4. 35 per cent.

Answer: c. 22 per cent.

Question 8. Out of every 10 animals on this planet, how many are insects?

3. 3.
4. 5.
5. 7.
6. 9.

Answer: c. 7.

Question 9. In the pie chart representing global vertebrate diversity, which group has the maximum number of species?

1. Birds.
2. Reptiles.
3. Mammals.
4. Fishes.

Answer: d. Fishes.

Question 10. Why do biologists lack a precise estimate of prokaryotic species diversity?

1. Prokaryotes are too small to be observed.
2. Prokaryotes have rapid mutation rates making classification impossible.
3. Conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for identifying microbial species.
4. Prokaryotes do not possess genetic material.

Answer: c. Conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for identifying microbial species.

Question 11. India has only 2.4 per cent of the world's land area, but its share of the global species diversity is an impressive:

5. 5.1 per cent.
6. 8.1 per cent.
7. 12.5 per cent.
8. 22.0 per cent.

Answer: b. 8.1 per cent.

Question 12. Because of its high species diversity, India is considered one of the globally recognized mega diversity countries. How many such countries are there in the world?

10. 10.
11. 12.
12. 15.
13. 17.

Answer: b. 12.

Question 13. Applying Robert May’s global estimate to India, how many plant species are yet to be discovered and described in the country?

1. More than 45,000.
2. More than 90,000.
3. More than 1,00,000.
4. More than 3,00,000.

Answer: c. More than 1,00,000.

Question 14. Species diversity generally decreases as we move from:

1. Equator to the poles.
2. Poles to the equator.
3. High altitudes to low altitudes.
4. Deep sea to shallow coastal waters.

Answer: a. Equator to the poles.

Question 15. Colombia, located near the equator, has nearly how many species of birds?

105. 105.
106. 1400.
107. 1200.
108. 3000.

Answer: b. 1400.

Question 16. New York at 41° N has 105 bird species, while Greenland at 71° N has only:

1. 34 species.
2. 56 species.
3. 82 species.
4. 95 species.

Answer: b. 56 species.

Question 17. A forest in a tropical region like Ecuador has up to how many times the number of vascular plant species as a forest of equal area in a temperate region like the Midwest of the USA?

1. 5 times.
2. 10 times.
3. 50 times.
4. 100 times.

Answer: b. 10 times.

Question 18. The largely tropical Amazonian rain forest in South America contains the greatest biodiversity on earth. It is home to approximately how many species of fishes?

300. 1,300.
301. 3,000.
302. 427.
303. 378.

Answer: b. 3,000.

Question 19. According to ecologists, what is a primary reason for greater biological diversity in the tropics compared to temperate regions?

1. Tropical environments undergo frequent glaciations promoting rapid speciation.
2. Tropical environments are less seasonal, relatively more constant, and predictable.
3. The tropics receive less solar energy, reducing mutation rates.
4. High altitude mountains are exclusively found in the tropics.

Answer: b. Tropical environments are less seasonal, relatively more constant, and predictable.

Question 20. The species-area relationship was proposed by the great German naturalist and geographer:

1. Alexander von Humboldt.
2. Paul Ehrlich.
3. David Tilman.
4. Robert May.

Answer: a. Alexander von Humboldt.

Question 21. On a logarithmic scale, the species-area relationship is a straight line described by the equation:

1. log S = log C + Z log A.
2. log S = log Z + C log A.
3. log C = log S + Z log A.
4. log A = log C + Z log S.

Answer: a. log S = log C + Z log A.

Question 22. In the species-area relationship equation, 'Z' represents the:

1. Species richness.
2. Y-intercept.
3. Slope of the line (regression coefficient).
4. Area of the explored region.

Answer: c. Slope of the line (regression coefficient).

Question 23. For frugivorous (fruit-eating) birds and mammals in the tropical forests of different continents, the slope (Z) value of the species-area relationship is found to be:

1. 0.1 to 0.2.
2. 0.6 to 1.2.
3. 1.15.
4. 1.5 to 2.0.

Answer: c. 1.15.

Question 24. A steep slope (higher Z value) in a species-area curve indicates that:

1. The area explored has very little species richness.
2. Species richness increases rapidly with the increase in explored area.
3. The environment is highly unstable and prone to extinctions.
4. Only endemic species are present in the region.

Answer: b. Species richness increases rapidly with the increase in explored area.

Question 25. David Tilman's long-term ecosystem experiments using outdoor plots showed that:

1. Plots with more species showed higher year-to-year variation in total biomass.
2. Increased diversity contributed to higher productivity.
3. Species richness has no relation to ecosystem stability.
4. Alien species invasions increase the productivity of plots.

Answer: b. Increased diversity contributed to higher productivity.

Question 26. According to the "Rivet popper hypothesis," the rivets on the wings of an airplane are analogous to:

1. Dominant species.
2. Endemic species.
3. Key species that drive major ecosystem functions.
4. Alien invasive species.

Answer: c. Key species that drive major ecosystem functions.

Question 27. The "Rivet popper hypothesis" was formulated by which Stanford ecologist?

1. Edward Wilson.
2. Paul Ehrlich.
3. David Tilman.
4. Robert May.

Answer: b. Paul Ehrlich.

Question 28. Which of the following statements aligns with the concept of ecosystem stability as described in NCERT?

1. A stable community should show massive variation in productivity from year to year.
2. A stable community must be highly resistant to occasional natural or man-made disturbances.
3. A stable community is defined by having only a few highly adaptable species.
4. A stable community is highly vulnerable to alien species invasions.

Answer: b. A stable community must be highly resistant to occasional natural or man-made disturbances.

Question 29. The colonization of tropical Pacific Islands by humans is said to have led to the extinction of more than:

1. 500 species of native birds.
2. 1000 species of native birds.
3. 2000 species of native birds.
4. 5000 species of native birds.

Answer: c. 2000 species of native birds.

Question 30. The IUCN Red List (2004) documents the extinction of how many species in the last 500 years?

338. 338.
339. 359.
340. 784.
341. 874.

Answer: c. 784.

Question 31. The 784 extinct species recorded by IUCN (2004) in the last 500 years include:

1. 338 vertebrates, 359 invertebrates, and 87 plants.
2. 359 vertebrates, 338 invertebrates, and 87 plants.
3. 87 vertebrates, 359 invertebrates, and 338 plants.
4. 338 vertebrates, 87 invertebrates, and 359 plants.

Answer: a. 338 vertebrates, 359 invertebrates, and 87 plants.

Question 32. Which of the following recently extinct species is mismatched with its country of origin?

1. Dodo - Mauritius.
2. Quagga - Africa.
3. Thylacine - Australia.
4. Steller’s Sea Cow - Indonesia.

Answer: d. Steller’s Sea Cow - Indonesia.

Question 33. Bali, Javan, and Caspian are extinct subspecies of the:

1. Lion.
2. Cheetah.
3. Tiger.
4. Leopard.

Answer: c. Tiger.

Question 34. The current species extinction rates are estimated to be how many times faster than in the pre-human times?

1. 10 to 50 times.
2. 50 to 100 times.
3. 100 to 1,000 times.
4. 1,000 to 10,000 times.

Answer: c. 100 to 1,000 times.

Question 35. Ecologists warn that if the present trends of extinction continue, nearly half of all the species on earth might be wiped out within the next:

1. 50 years.
2. 100 years.
3. 500 years.
4. 1000 years.

Answer: b. 100 years.

Question 36. Which group of taxa faces the highest percentage threat of extinction globally?

1. Birds.
2. Mammals.
3. Amphibians.
4. Gymnosperms.

Answer: c. Amphibians.

Question 37. Currently, what percentage of all amphibian species in the world face the threat of extinction?

1. 12 per cent.
2. 23 per cent.
3. 31 per cent.
4. 32 per cent.

Answer: d. 32 per cent.

Question 38. The current episode of mass extinction of species on Earth is the:

1. Fourth.
2. Fifth.
3. Sixth.
4. Seventh.

Answer: c. Sixth.

Question 39. Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to all of the following EXCEPT:

1. Decline in plant production.
2. Lowered resistance to environmental perturbations such as drought.
3. Increased variability in certain ecosystem processes such as water use.
4. Enhanced stability and resilience of the local ecosystem.

Answer: d. Enhanced stability and resilience of the local ecosystem.

Question 40. The 'Evil Quartet' is a sobriquet used to describe:

1. The four major causes of biodiversity losses.
2. The four main greenhouse gases.
3. The four most invasive alien plant species.
4. The four mass extinctions of the past.

Answer: a. The four major causes of biodiversity losses.

Question 41. The most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction is:

1. Over-exploitation.
2. Alien species invasions.
3. Habitat loss and fragmentation.
4. Co-extinctions.

Answer: c. Habitat loss and fragmentation.

Question 42. Tropical rain forests once covered more than 14 per cent of the earth's land surface. They now cover no more than:

1. 2 per cent.
2. 6 per cent.
3. 8 per cent.
4. 10 per cent.

Answer: b. 6 per cent.

Question 43. The Amazon rain forest is being rapidly cleared primarily for:

1. Industrial development and mining.
2. Cultivating soybeans or for conversion to grasslands for raising beef cattle.
3. Establishing massive rubber plantations.
4. Harvesting timber for the international paper industry.

Answer: b. Cultivating soybeans or for conversion to grasslands for raising beef cattle.

Question 44. When large habitats are broken up into small fragments due to human activities, which organisms are most severely affected?

1. Small herbivores and ground-dwelling birds.
2. Mammals and birds requiring large territories and certain animals with migratory habits.
3. Insects and reptiles that thrive in edge habitats.
4. Microorganisms and saprophytic fungi.

Answer: b. Mammals and birds requiring large territories and certain animals with migratory habits.

Question 45. Steller's sea cow and the passenger pigeon became extinct in the last 500 years due to:

1. Habitat fragmentation.
2. Over-exploitation by humans.
3. Alien species invasion.
4. Co-extinction with specific parasites.

Answer: b. Over-exploitation by humans.

Question 46. The introduction of the Nile perch into Lake Victoria in East Africa led eventually to the extinction of an ecologically unique assemblage of more than 200 species of:

1. Cichlid fish.
2. Lungfish.
3. Catfish.
4. Amphibians.

Answer: a. Cichlid fish.

Question 47. Which of the following is NOT an invasive weed species that has caused environmental damage in India?

1. Carrot grass (Parthenium).
2. Lantana.
3. Water hyacinth (Eichhornia).
4. Rauwolfia.

Answer: d. Rauwolfia.

Question 48. The recent illegal introduction of which fish species for aquaculture purposes poses a threat to the indigenous catfishes in our rivers?

1. Nile perch (Lates niloticus).
2. African catfish (Clarias gariepinus).
3. Gambusia.
4. Rohu (Labeo rohita).

Answer: b. African catfish (Clarias gariepinus).

Question 49. When a host fish species becomes extinct, its unique assemblage of parasites also meets the same fate. This is an example of:

1. Habitat fragmentation.
2. Alien species invasion.
3. Co-extinction.
4. Over-exploitation.

Answer: c. Co-extinction.

Question 50. The arguments for conserving biodiversity are grouped into three categories. Which of the following falls under the 'narrowly utilitarian' argument?

1. Aesthetic pleasure of walking through thick woods.
2. The economic value of timber, firewood, and pharmaceuticals.
3. The production of oxygen by the Amazon forest.
4. The intrinsic value of all living species.

Answer: b. The economic value of timber, firewood, and pharmaceuticals.

Question 51. More than 25 per cent of the drugs currently sold in the market worldwide are derived from:

1. Animals.
2. Microbes.
3. Plants.
4. Synthetic chemicals exclusively.

Answer: c. Plants.

Question 52. How many species of plants are known to contribute to traditional medicines used by native peoples around the world?

1. 10,000.
2. 15,000.
3. 25,000.
4. 50,000.

Answer: c. 25,000.

Question 53. Exploring molecular, genetic, and species-level diversity for products of economic importance is known as:

1. Bioremediation.
2. Bioprospecting.
3. Biomagnification.
4. Biofortification.

Answer: b. Bioprospecting.

Question 54. The 'broadly utilitarian' argument for the conservation of biodiversity focuses on:

1. Direct economic benefits like food and medicines.
2. Ecosystem services that nature provides, such as pollination and oxygen production.
3. The moral duty to care for all species.
4. The extraction of commercial timber.

Answer: b. Ecosystem services that nature provides, such as pollination and oxygen production.

Question 55. It is estimated that the Amazon forest is responsible for producing what percentage of the total oxygen in the Earth's atmosphere through photosynthesis?

1. 10 per cent.
2. 20 per cent.
3. 30 per cent.
4. 50 per cent.

Answer: b. 20 per cent.

Question 56. Which of the following is NOT an ecosystem service considered under the broadly utilitarian category?

1. Pollination by bees and birds.
2. Aesthetic pleasure of watching spring flowers.
3. Oxygen production by plants.
4. Extraction of tannins and resins for industrial use.

Answer: d. Extraction of tannins and resins for industrial use.

Question 57. The 'ethical' argument for conserving biodiversity is based on the belief that:

1. We need to extract maximum economic value from nature.
2. Every species has an intrinsic value, even if it has no current economic use.
3. Nature is purely a resource for human survival.
4. Only keystone species deserve conservation.

Answer: b. Every species has an intrinsic value, even if it has no current economic use.

Question 58. When we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem, its biodiversity at all levels is protected. This approach is called:

1. Ex situ conservation.
2. In situ conservation.
3. Cryopreservation.
4. Tissue culture.

Answer: b. In situ conservation.

Question 59. When an animal is in imminent danger of extinction and needs urgent measures to save it from declining, the preferred approach is:

1. In situ conservation.
2. Ex situ conservation.
3. Establishment of a biosphere reserve.
4. Creation of a sacred grove.

Answer: b. Ex situ conservation.

Question 60. The concept of 'biodiversity hotspots' was developed to identify regions with:

1. Low species richness and low endemism.
2. High levels of species richness and high degree of endemism.
3. Large populations of single dominant species.
4. Highly degraded ecosystems requiring minimal intervention.

Answer: b. High levels of species richness and high degree of endemism.

Question 61. Endemism refers to:

1. Species confined to a specific region and not found anywhere else.
2. Species that migrate across multiple continents.
3. Species that are widespread globally but locally threatened.
4. Alien species invading a new ecosystem.

Answer: a. Species confined to a specific region and not found anywhere else.

Question 62. Initially, 25 biodiversity hotspots were identified globally. Currently, the total number of recognized biodiversity hotspots in the world is:

25. 25.
26. 30.
27. 34.
28. 40.

Answer: c. 34.

Question 63. Which of the following is NOT a biodiversity hotspot that covers parts of India?

1. Western Ghats and Sri Lanka.
2. Indo-Burma.
3. Himalaya.
4. Deccan Plateau.

Answer: d. Deccan Plateau.

Question 64. All the biodiversity hotspots put together cover less than what percentage of the earth's land area?

1. 1 per cent.
2. 2 per cent.
3. 5 per cent.
4. 10 per cent.

Answer: b. 2 per cent.

Question 65. Strict protection of the global biodiversity hotspots could reduce the ongoing mass extinctions by almost:

1. 10 per cent.
2. 30 per cent.
3. 50 per cent.
4. 80 per cent.

Answer: b. 30 per cent.

Question 66. India has highly protected areas designated as biosphere reserves. How many biosphere reserves does India currently have as per the NCERT text?

10. 10.
11. 14.
12. 18.
13. 90.

Answer: b. 14.

Question 67. How many National Parks are recorded in India according to the standard NCERT data?

40. 40.
41. 90.
42. 120.
43. 448.

Answer: b. 90.

Question 68. The number of wildlife sanctuaries in India according to NCERT is:

14. 14.
15. 90.
16. 448.
17. 512.

Answer: c. 448.

Question 69. In Meghalaya, the last refuges for a large number of rare and threatened plants are the:

1. National Parks.
2. Biosphere Reserves.
3. Sacred Groves.
4. Botanical Gardens.

Answer: c. Sacred Groves.

Question 70. Sacred groves are highly protected tracts of forest based on religious and cultural traditions. Which of the following regions is associated with sacred groves in Rajasthan?

1. Khasi and Jaintia Hills.
2. Aravalli Hills.
3. Western Ghat regions.
4. Sarguja, Chanda, and Bastar areas.

Answer: b. Aravalli Hills.

Question 71. Which of the following pairs is an example of ex situ conservation?

1. Sacred groves and Biosphere reserves.
2. National parks and Wildlife sanctuaries.
3. Zoological parks and Botanical gardens.
4. Hotspots and Sacred lakes.

Answer: c. Zoological parks and Botanical gardens.

Question 72. In recent years, ex situ conservation has advanced beyond keeping threatened species in enclosures. Which of the following is a modern method of ex situ conservation?

1. Establishing new national parks.
2. Cryopreservation of gametes.
3. Protecting natural migration routes.
4. Declaring sacred groves.

Answer: b. Cryopreservation of gametes.

Question 73. Seeds of different genetic strains of commercially important plants can be kept for long periods using:

1. Sacred groves.
2. Herbarium sheets.
3. Seed banks.
4. Field gene banks under natural conditions only.

Answer: c. Seed banks.

Question 74. Plants can be propagated in large numbers using modern ex situ techniques such as:

1. Natural regeneration in sanctuaries.
2. Tissue culture methods.
3. Creating buffer zones in biosphere reserves.
4. Protecting endemic hotspots.

Answer: b. Tissue culture methods.

Question 75. The historic Convention on Biological Diversity, also known as 'The Earth Summit', was held in:

1. Johannesburg, South Africa.
2. Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
3. Kyoto, Japan.
4. Montreal, Canada.

Answer: b. Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.

Question 76. In which year did the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro take place?

1987. 1987.
1988. 1992.
1989. 1997.
1990. 2002.

Answer: b. 1992.

Question 77. The World Summit on Sustainable Development, where 190 countries pledged their commitment to achieve a significant reduction in the current rate of biodiversity loss, was held in:

1. 1992 in Rio de Janeiro.
2. 2002 in Johannesburg.
3. 1997 in Kyoto.
4. 2012 in Paris.

Answer: b. 2002 in Johannesburg.

Question 78. By which year did the 190 countries at the World Summit in Johannesburg pledge to achieve a significant reduction in the current rate of biodiversity loss at global, regional, and local levels?

2010. 2010.
2011. 2015.
2012. 2020.
2013. 2030.

Answer: a. 2010.

Question 79. Consider the following equation for the species-area relationship: log S = log C + Z log A. What happens to the value of Z if the area analyzed is an entire continent instead of a small region?

1. Z value remains the same.
2. Z value decreases significantly.
3. Z value falls in the range of 0.6 to 1.2.
4. Z value becomes zero.

Answer: c. Z value falls in the range of 0.6 to 1.2.

Question 80. Alexander von Humboldt observed that within a region, species richness increases with increasing explored area, but:

1. At an exponential rate infinitely.
2. Only up to a limit.
3. Only in tropical regions.
4. Decreases after reaching a threshold.

Answer: b. Only up to a limit.

Question 81. The variety of life forms at the chromosomal, gene, and allelic levels is termed as:

1. Ecosystem diversity.
2. Species diversity.
3. Genetic diversity.
4. Biome diversity.

Answer: c. Genetic diversity.

Question 82. Which of the following statements about the distribution of biodiversity on Earth is incorrect?

1. Biodiversity is uniformly distributed throughout the world.
2. Tropical latitudes have more species than temperate latitudes.
3. Amazonian rain forest has the greatest biodiversity on Earth.
4. Species diversity decreases from the equator towards the poles.

Answer: a. Biodiversity is uniformly distributed throughout the world.

Question 83. The introduction of water hyacinth into Indian water bodies caused severe problems. This species is an example of:

1. Endemic species.
2. Over-exploited species.
3. Alien invasive species.
4. Keystone species.

Answer: c. Alien invasive species.

Question 84. The passenger pigeon became extinct largely due to:

1. Climatic changes during the ice age.
2. Over-hunting and over-exploitation by humans.
3. Viral infections.
4. Competition with alien bird species.

Answer: b. Over-hunting and over-exploitation by humans.

Question 85. The relationship between the extinction of a plant species and its specific pollinator insect is an example of:

1. Amensalism.
2. Alien species invasion.
3. Co-extinction.
4. Competitive exclusion.

Answer: c. Co-extinction.

Question 86. Which conservation strategy involves protecting the natural habitat and allowing the evolutionary processes to continue unhindered?

1. Ex-situ conservation.
2. In-situ conservation.
3. Cryopreservation.
4. Botanical gardens.

Answer: b. In-situ conservation.

Question 87. Sacred groves in Madhya Pradesh are typically located in the regions of:

1. Aravalli Hills.
2. Khasi and Jaintia Hills.
3. Sarguja, Chanda, and Bastar.
4. Western Ghats.

Answer: c. Sarguja, Chanda, and Bastar.

Question 88. Cryopreservation is a technique used for:

1. Preserving habitats at very low temperatures.
2. Freezing whole ecosystems for future recovery.
3. Preserving gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile conditions using liquid nitrogen.
4. Storing dried plant specimens in herbariums.

Answer: c. Preserving gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile conditions using liquid nitrogen.

Question 89. According to David Tilman's experiments, higher species diversity in a plot leads to:

1. Greater fluctuation in total biomass from year to year.
2. Less year-to-year variation in total biomass.
3. A decrease in resistance to alien species.
4. Complete depletion of soil nutrients.

Answer: b. Less year-to-year variation in total biomass.

Question 90. Which of the following is considered a 'broadly utilitarian' reason for biodiversity conservation?

1. Harvesting timber for construction.
2. Using plant extracts for modern medicines.
3. The aesthetic value of observing a blooming flower or walking in the woods.
4. Extracting resins for industrial applications.

Answer: c. The aesthetic value of observing a blooming flower or walking in the woods.

Question 91. The extinction of the Thylacine occurred in which country?

1. Mauritius.
2. Russia.
3. Australia.
4. Africa.

Answer: c. Australia.

Question 92. The Dodo, a flightless bird, went extinct from:

1. The Galapagos Islands.
2. Madagascar.
3. Mauritius.
4. Hawaii.

Answer: c. Mauritius.

Question 93. Out of the following, which group has the maximum global diversity?

1. Fungi.
2. Algae.
3. Mosses.
4. Ferns and allies.

Answer: a. Fungi.

Question 94. The number of fungi species in the world is more than the combined total of the species of:

1. Fishes, amphibians, reptiles, and mammals.
2. Fishes, insects, and birds.
3. Algae, mosses, ferns, and gymnosperms.
4. Bacteria, algae, and lichens.

Answer: a. Fishes, amphibians, reptiles, and mammals.

Question 95. What percentage of the Earth's land surface is currently covered by biodiversity hotspots?

1. More than 10 per cent.
2. Exactly 5 per cent.
3. Less than 2 per cent.
4. Nearly 20 per cent.

Answer: c. Less than 2 per cent.

Question 96. Which region has the highest concentration of endemic amphibian species in India?

1. The Himalayas.
2. The Gangetic Plains.
3. The Western Ghats.
4. The Thar Desert.

Answer: c. The Western Ghats.

Question 97. The term 'Sixth Extinction' refers to:

1. The extinction of dinosaurs due to a meteorite impact.
2. The rapid rate of species extinction currently driven by human activities.
3. The loss of megafauna during the last ice age.
4. The theoretical future extinction event caused by solar expansion.

Answer: b. The rapid rate of species extinction currently driven by human activities.

Question 98. Wildlife safari parks are examples of which type of conservation?

1. In-situ conservation.
2. Ex-situ conservation.
3. Natural ecosystem preservation.
4. Biosphere reserve core zone.

Answer: b. Ex-situ conservation.

Question 99. The Rivet Popper hypothesis assumes that:

1. Every species plays a crucial role in ecosystem functioning, similar to rivets in an airplane.
2. Loss of a single species will immediately crash the ecosystem.
3. Only keystone species (rivets on the wings) matter; other species (rivets on the seats) are irrelevant.
4. Removing a few species has a severe initial impact, but the ecosystem recovers instantly.

Answer: a. Every species plays a crucial role in ecosystem functioning, similar to rivets in an airplane.

Question 100. Identify the incorrect match concerning the location of sacred groves in India.

1. Khasi and Jaintia Hills - Meghalaya.
2. Aravalli Hills - Rajasthan.
3. Western Ghat regions - Karnataka and Maharashtra.
4. Sarguja, Chanda, and Bastar - Kerala.

Answer: d. Sarguja, Chanda, and Bastar - Kerala.

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