NCERT NEET Biology English Medium Part-1 | Chapter 22 : Reproductive Health.

NCERT NEET Biology English Medium Part-1 | Chapter 22 : Reproductive Health.

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Question 1: Which of the following best describes the aim of the Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programmes in India?

1. Creating awareness among people about various reproduction related aspects and providing facilities for reproductive health.
2. Only controlling the population growth rate by promoting surgical methods of contraception.
3. Eliminating all sexually transmitted infections globally within a decade.
4. Exclusively reducing the maternal mortality rate without focusing on infant health.

Answer: a.

Question 2: Family planning programmes were initiated in India in which of the following years?

1971. 1971.
1972. 1951.
1973. 1981.
1974. 1991.

Answer: b.

Question 3: Amniocentesis is legally banned in India primarily to check which of the following social evils?

1. Infant mortality rate.
2. Maternal mortality rate.
3. Female foeticide.
4. Spread of sexually transmitted diseases.

Answer: c.

Question 4: Which of the following is an indicator of improved reproductive health of the society?

1. Increased maternal mortality rate.
2. Better detection and cure of STDs.
3. Decreased number of medically assisted deliveries.
4. Increased birth rate and decreased life expectancy.

Answer: b.

Question 5: Given below are two statements regarding amniocentesis. Statement I: It is a fetal sex determination test based on the chromosomal pattern in the amniotic fluid. Statement II: It is clinically used to detect genetic disorders like Down syndrome and sickle-cell anemia. Choose the correct option.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Answer: d.

Question 6: 'Saheli', a new oral contraceptive for females, was developed by scientists at which of the following institutes?

1. Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore.
2. Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI), Lucknow.
3. All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi.
4. National Institute of Virology (NIV), Pune.

Answer: b.

Question 7: According to the 2011 census report, the population growth rate of India was around what percentage?

1. Less than 2 percent.
2. More than 3 percent.
3. Exactly 2.5 percent.
4. Less than 1 percent.

Answer: a.

Question 8: Rapid decline in which of the following factors does not contribute directly to a population explosion?

1. Death rate.
2. Maternal mortality rate (MMR).
3. Infant mortality rate (IMR).
4. Number of people in the post-reproductive age.

Answer: d.

Question 9: The statutory marriageable age for females and males in India is respectively which of the following?

1. 18 years and 21 years.
2. 21 years and 18 years.
3. 18 years and 18 years.
4. 21 years and 21 years.

Answer: a.

Question 10: Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive?

1. User-friendly and easily available.
2. Effective and reversible.
3. It should permanently interfere with the sexual drive.
4. It should have no or least side-effects.

Answer: c.

Question 11: Periodic abstinence is a natural method of contraception where couples avoid coitus from which days of the menstrual cycle?

5. Day 1 to 5.
6. Day 5 to 10.
7. Day 10 to 17.
8. Day 17 to 28.

Answer: c.

Question 12: The effectiveness of lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method is typically limited to a maximum of how many months following parturition?

1. Three months.
2. Six months.
3. Nine months.
4. Twelve months.

Answer: b.

Question 13: In the withdrawal method of contraception, the male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just before which physiological event?

1. Implantation.
2. Ejaculation.
3. Ovulation.
4. Insemination.

Answer: b.

Question 14: Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of which of the following reasons?

1. They are highly complex to use.
2. They are non-disposable.
3. They offer protection against STIs and AIDS.
4. They require clinical assistance for insertion.

Answer: c.

Question 15: Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are barrier methods made of rubber that are inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover which structure during coitus?

1. Vagina.
2. Cervix.
3. Uterus.
4. Fallopian tubes.

Answer: b.

Question 16: Spermicidal creams, jellies, and foams are usually used along with which barrier methods to increase their contraceptive efficiency?

1. Copper T.
2. Oral pills.
3. Condoms for males.
4. Diaphragms and cervical caps.

Answer: d.

Question 17: Which of the following is a non-medicated Intra Uterine Device (IUD)?

1. CuT.
2. Lippes loop.
3. Multiload 375.
4. Progestasert.

Answer: b.

Question 18: What is the primary role of copper ions released from copper-releasing IUDs?

1. They make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
2. They suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms.
3. They prevent ovulation by providing negative feedback to the pituitary.
4. They cause a thick cervical mucus plug to form.

Answer: b.

Question 19: Which of the following IUDs are hormone-releasing?

7. CuT and Cu7.
8. Multiload 375 and Lippes loop.
9. Progestasert and LNG-20.
10. Lippes loop and Cu7.

Answer: c.

Question 20: Hormone releasing IUDs prevent pregnancy by making the uterus unsuitable for implantation and altering which of the following?

1. Making the cervix hostile to the sperms.
2. Suppressing the release of gonadotropins permanently.
3. Destroying the fallopian tubes.
4. Blocking the vas deferens.

Answer: a.

Question 21: IUDs are considered one of the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India for which group of females?

1. Females who want to delay pregnancy or space children.
2. Females seeking a permanent method of sterilization.
3. Females who have never been pregnant.
4. Females seeking to cure sexually transmitted infections.

Answer: a.

Question 22: Oral contraceptives (pills) have to be taken daily for a period of how many days, starting preferably within the first five days of the menstrual cycle?

1. 14 days.
2. 21 days.
3. 28 days.
4. 30 days.

Answer: b.

Question 23: Oral administration of small doses of either progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations acts as a contraceptive by which primary mechanism?

1. Phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
2. Inhibiting ovulation and implantation.
3. Blocking the entry of sperm into the vagina.
4. Surgically blocking the fallopian tubes.

Answer: b.

Question 24: 'Saheli' differs from most other oral contraceptives in which of the following ways?

1. It is taken daily and contains heavy steroidal preparations.
2. It is a once-a-week pill with very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
3. It acts by physically blocking sperm entry.
4. It has a steroidal composition that directly kills sperms.

Answer: b.

Question 25: Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can also be used by females as injections or implants under the skin. Their mode of action is similar to that of which other contraceptive method?

1. Condoms.
2. IUDs.
3. Oral pills.
4. Vasectomy.

Answer: c.

Question 26: Administration of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations or IUDs within how many hours of coitus is highly effective as emergency contraception?

1. 24 hours.
2. 48 hours.
3. 72 hours.
4. 120 hours.

Answer: c.

Question 27: Surgical methods of contraception are generally advised for the male/female partner as a terminal method to prevent any more pregnancies. This procedure is also called what?

1. Immunization.
2. Sterilization.
3. Insemination.
4. Implantation.

Answer: b.

Question 28: In vasectomy, a small part of which structure is removed or tied up through a small incision on the scrotum?

1. Epididymis.
2. Seminiferous tubule.
3. Vas deferens.
4. Ejaculatory duct.

Answer: c.

Question 29: In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small incision in which area?

1. Vagina.
2. Abdomen or through vagina.
3. Cervix.
4. Uterus.

Answer: b.

Question 30: Which of the following is true regarding the reversibility of surgical methods of contraception?

1. They are easily reversible with high success rates.
2. They are completely irreversible under all circumstances.
3. Their reversibility is very poor.
4. They can only be reversed in females.

Answer: c.

Question 31: Assertion (A): Natural methods of contraception work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting. Reason (R): Natural methods have the highest effectiveness and zero chance of failure. Choose the correct option.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. Both A and R are false.

Answer: c.

Question 32: The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 allows a pregnancy to be terminated on certain considered grounds within how many weeks?

1. 12 weeks.
2. 20 weeks.
3. 24 weeks.
4. 28 weeks.

Answer: c.

Question 33: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) was legalized in India in which year, with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse?

1951. 1951.
1952. 1971.
1953. 1981.
1954. 2001.

Answer: b.

Question 34: MTPs are considered relatively safe during which trimester of pregnancy?

1. First trimester.
2. Second trimester.
3. Third trimester.
4. They are equally safe in all trimesters.

Answer: a.

Question 35: Which of the following is the most disturbing trend observed regarding MTPs in India?

1. Majority of the MTPs are performed by highly qualified doctors.
2. MTPs are predominantly performed on female foetuses after illegal sex determination.
3. MTPs are completely free of cost in all private hospitals.
4. MTPs are declining at a rapid rate.

Answer: b.

Question 36: Diseases or infections which are transmitted through sexual intercourse are collectively called sexually transmitted infections (STIs) or what else?

1. Non-communicable diseases.
2. Venereal diseases (VD) or reproductive tract infections (RTI).
3. Autoimmune diseases.
4. Congenital disorders.

Answer: b.

Question 37: Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted infection?

1. Syphilis.
2. Typhoid.
3. Gonorrhoea.
4. Genital herpes.

Answer: b.

Question 38: Which of the following STIs is caused by a virus and is completely incurable?

1. Syphilis.
2. Chlamydiasis.
3. Genital herpes.
4. Gonorrhoea.

Answer: c.

Question 39: Hepatitis-B and HIV can also be transmitted by which of the following non-sexual modes?

1. Sharing of injection needles and surgical instruments with infected persons.
2. Mosquito bites.
3. Shaking hands and hugging.
4. Sharing food and drinking water.

Answer: a.

Question 40: Except for which set of diseases, are all other STIs completely curable if detected early and treated properly?

1. Hepatitis-B, genital herpes, and HIV infection.
2. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, and chlamydiasis.
3. Trichomoniasis, genital warts, and syphilis.
4. Chlamydiasis, genital herpes, and gonorrhoea.

Answer: a.

Question 41: Early symptoms of most STIs are minor and include which of the following in the genital region?

1. High fever, chills, and vomiting.
2. Itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, and swellings.
3. Complete loss of sensation and paralysis.
4. Severe bleeding and bone pain.

Answer: b.

Question 42: Why do infected females often remain asymptomatic for STIs for a long time?

1. Their immune system is naturally immune to all STIs.
2. They do not have reproductive tracts.
3. Absence or less significant early symptoms combined with social stigma deter them from seeking help.
4. STIs only affect the male reproductive system.

Answer: c.

Question 43: Complications of advanced, untreated STIs can lead to Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases (PID), abortions, stillbirths, ectopic pregnancies, infertility, or even what?

1. Cancer of the reproductive tract.
2. Tuberculosis.
3. Malaria.
4. Coronary artery disease.

Answer: a.

Question 44: Although all persons are vulnerable to STIs, their incidences are reported to be very high among persons in which age group?

1. 10-14 years.
2. 15-24 years.
3. 25-35 years.
4. 40-50 years.

Answer: b.

Question 45: To remain free from STIs, one should avoid which of the following practices?

1. Using condoms during coitus.
2. Sex with unknown partners or multiple partners.
3. Consulting a qualified doctor for early diagnosis.
4. Maintaining personal hygiene.

Answer: b.

Question 46: Infertility is defined as the inability to produce children despite how long of unprotected sexual cohabitation?

1. 6 months.
2. 1 year.
3. 2 years.
4. 5 years.

Answer: c.

Question 47: In India, who is most often blamed when a couple is unable to produce children due to societal biases?

1. The male partner.
2. The female partner.
3. Both partners equally.
4. Environmental factors.

Answer: b.

Question 48: Specialized healthcare units called infertility clinics can help in diagnosis and corrective treatment of some infertility disorders. When such treatments are not possible, couples are assisted to have children through techniques called what?

1. MTP.
2. RCH.
3. ART (Assisted Reproductive Technologies).
4. RTI.

Answer: c.

Question 49: In vitro fertilization (IVF) involves fertilization of the ovum and sperm in which environment?

1. Inside the female's fallopian tube.
2. Inside the female's uterus.
3. Outside the body in almost similar conditions as that in the body.
4. Inside a surrogate mother's body prior to transfer.

Answer: c.

Question 50: In the ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) technique, what is transferred into the fallopian tube?

1. Unfertilized ovum.
2. Zygote or early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres.
3. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres.
4. Sperms exclusively.

Answer: b.

Question 51: Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres formed through IVF are transferred into the uterus to complete further development. This process is called what?

1. ZIFT.
2. IUT (Intra Uterine Transfer).
3. GIFT.
4. AI.

Answer: b.

Question 52: In vivo fertilization refers to the fusion of gametes occurring where?

1. In a test tube.
2. Within the female's body.
3. In an incubator.
4. In the male's reproductive tract.

Answer: b.

Question 53: GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer) is recommended for those females who exhibit which of the following conditions?

1. Can produce an ovum but cannot provide a suitable environment for fertilization and further development.
2. Cannot produce an ovum but can provide suitable environment for fertilization and further development.
3. Have blocked fallopian tubes preventing sperm entry.
4. Have a hostile cervical mucus that kills sperms.

Answer: b.

Question 54: Which ART technique involves the direct injection of a sperm into the ovum to form an embryo in the laboratory?

1. IUI.
2. GIFT.
3. ZIFT.
4. ICSI (Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection).

Answer: d.

Question 55: Artificial insemination (AI) is utilized in cases where infertility is due to which of the following male-related factors?

1. Absence of testes.
2. Inability of the male partner to inseminate the female or very low sperm counts in the ejaculates.
3. Hyperactivity of sperms causing early death.
4. Blockage of the female's fallopian tubes.

Answer: b.

Question 56: In Intra-Uterine Insemination (IUI), semen collected from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced directly into which part of the female?

1. Fallopian tubes.
2. Ovaries.
3. Uterus.
4. Vagina only.

Answer: c.

Question 57: What is the primary limitation of utilizing Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ARTs) in India?

1. High success rate guaranteed for every couple.
2. Availability only in a few highly specialized centers and the high cost of the procedures.
3. Lack of trained medical professionals across all rural areas only.
4. Total government ban on all ART procedures.

Answer: b.

Question 58: Considering the social, emotional, and religious factors that deter ARTs, what is the ultimate and legally recognized method for infertile couples to have a child in India?

1. Buying a child illegally.
2. Cloning.
3. Legal adoption.
4. Surrogacy without legal framework.

Answer: c.

Question 59: Which of the following STIs is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum?

1. Gonorrhoea.
2. Syphilis.
3. Chlamydiasis.
4. Genital warts.

Answer: b.

Question 60: Match Column I (Contraceptive method) with Column II (Example) and choose the correct option. Column I: A. Barrier, B. IUD, C. Oral Contraceptive, D. Surgical technique. Column II: 1. Saheli, 2. Condom, 3. Vasectomy, 4. Copper T.

3. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3.
4. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3.
5. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1.
6. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3.

Answer: a.

Question 61: Assertion (A): Breastfeeding provides some protection against pregnancy. Reason (R): Intense lactation suppresses gonadotropin release, thereby delaying the return of ovulation.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. Both A and R are false.

Answer: a.

Question 62: Which method of contraception works strictly by changing the hormonal balance of the body to prevent ovulation?

1. Condoms.
2. Tubectomy.
3. Oral pills.
4. Lippes loop.

Answer: c.

Question 63: The copper ions released from Cu-releasing IUDs primarily act by doing what?

1. Changing the pH of the vagina.
2. Causing an inflammatory reaction that destroys sperms.
3. Suppressing sperm motility and fertilizing capacity.
4. Stimulating early ovulation.

Answer: c.

Question 64: What is the full form of RCH?

1. Reproduction and Child Health Care.
2. Reproductive and Child Health Care.
3. Reproductive, Child, and Health Care.
4. Regional Child Health Care.

Answer: b.

Question 65: What was the main reason behind introducing the statutory ban on amniocentesis for sex determination?

1. It was causing infections in the foetus.
2. To prevent the increasing menace of female foeticide.
3. It was an extremely costly procedure.
4. It led to high maternal mortality.

Answer: b.

Question 66: Which of the following completely prevents the entry of sperm into the female reproductive tract and also protects against AIDS?

1. Vaginal vaults.
2. Diaphragms.
3. Male condom.
4. Copper T.

Answer: c.

Question 67: Assertion (A): MTP is considered relatively safe up to the first trimester of pregnancy. Reason (R): Second-trimester abortions are much more riskier because the foetus becomes intimately associated with maternal tissues.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. Both A and R are false.

Answer: a.

Question 68: Genital warts are caused by which type of infectious agent?

1. Bacteria.
2. Virus.
3. Protozoa.
4. Fungi.

Answer: b.

Question 69: Which of the following pairs is correctly matched regarding ART?

1. GIFT - Transfer of zygote into the fallopian tube.
2. ZIFT - Transfer of embryo into the uterus.
3. IUI - Semen is transferred into the uterus.
4. ICSI - Ovum is injected into the sperm.

Answer: c.

Question 70: Choose the correct statement regarding 'Saheli'.

1. It was developed by scientists at AIIMS, Delhi.
2. It is a highly steroidal oral contraceptive.
3. It is a once-a-week pill containing a non-steroidal preparation.
4. It is taken daily for 21 days starting from the fifth day of menstruation.

Answer: c.

Question 71: The permissible grounds for MTP under the 2017 Amendment Act do NOT include which of the following?

1. Danger to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman.
2. Sex preference of the parents for a male child.
3. Substantial risk of physical or mental abnormalities in the child.
4. Pregnancy resulting from rape or failure of contraceptive devices.

Answer: b.

Question 72: A couple is infertile because the male partner has a very low sperm count, while the female partner is entirely normal. Which of the following ARTs would be most suitable for them?

1. Artificial Insemination (AI).
2. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT).
3. Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT).
4. Surrogacy.

Answer: a.

Question 73: The "safe period" or periodic abstinence method relies on avoiding coitus during which phase of the menstrual cycle (in a 28-day cycle)?

7. Days 1 to 7.
8. Days 10 to 17.
9. Days 20 to 28.
10. Days 25 to 28.

Answer: b.

Question 74: During lactational amenorrhea, the chances of conception are almost nil. This is physiologically due to the absence of which event?

1. Menstruation alone.
2. Ovulation.
3. Copulation.
4. Fertilization.

Answer: b.

Question 75: Select the correct statement about IUDs.

1. They are inserted by the user herself.
2. They are placed in the vagina to block sperm entry.
3. They increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
4. They contain steroidal combinations that prevent spermatogenesis in males.

Answer: c.

Question 76: Which of the following methods of contraception has the lowest failure rate but the poorest reversibility?

1. Condoms.
2. Hormone-releasing IUDs.
3. Oral contraceptive pills.
4. Surgical methods (Vasectomy/Tubectomy).

Answer: d.

Question 77: Which sexually transmitted infection is characterized by painless ulcers (chancres) in its primary stage?

1. Gonorrhoea.
2. Syphilis.
3. Genital herpes.
4. Trichomoniasis.

Answer: b.

Question 78: Identify the protozoan disease among the following STIs.

1. Syphilis.
2. Gonorrhoea.
3. Trichomoniasis.
4. Genital warts.

Answer: c.

Question 79: The technique wherein a sperm is directly injected into the ovum under microscopic control in a laboratory is abbreviated as what?

1. GIFT.
2. ZIFT.
3. IUI.
4. ICSI.

Answer: d.

Question 80: What does the term 'test-tube baby' programme actually refer to?

1. Fetus developing entirely in a test tube.
2. In vitro fertilization followed by embryo transfer.
3. In vivo fertilization followed by embryo transfer.
4. Artificial insemination inside a test tube.

Answer: b.

Question 81: An embryo with 16 blastomeres formed after IVF is transferred into which part of the female reproductive tract?

1. Ampulla of fallopian tube.
2. Isthmus of fallopian tube.
3. Uterus.
4. Cervix.

Answer: c.

Question 82: Assertion (A): Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are reusable barrier contraceptives for females. Reason (R): They block the entry of sperms through the cervix and protect extensively against all STDs.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. Both A and R are false.

Answer: c.

Question 83: Which of the following hormone combinations is predominantly used in combined oral contraceptive pills?

1. Estrogen and Testosterone.
2. Progestogen and Estrogen.
3. Progesterone and Prolactin.
4. FSH and LH.

Answer: b.

Question 84: Emergency contraceptives are intended to prevent pregnancy if taken within 72 hours of what event?

1. Ovulation.
2. Unprotected coitus.
3. Menstruation.
4. Implantation.

Answer: b.

Question 85: Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception by females in India seeking to space children?

1. Tubectomy.
2. Condoms.
3. IUDs.
4. Diaphragms.

Answer: c.

Question 86: The highest rate of growth in the Indian population was observed during which period, leading to the initiation of intense population control measures?

1. Early 1900s.
2. Post-independence era (late 20th century).
3. Ancient India.
4. Post 2020.

Answer: b.

Question 87: In the context of amniocentesis, what does the analysis of amniotic fluid cells primarily focus on to detect genetic disorders?

1. Protein concentration.
2. Chromosomal pattern.
3. Glucose levels.
4. Lipid profile.

Answer: b.

Question 88: Consider the statements regarding 'Withdrawal method': Statement I: It is also known as coitus interruptus. Statement II: It has a 100% success rate with no chance of failure. Select the correct option.

1. Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
2. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
3. Both statements are true.
4. Both statements are false.

Answer: a.

Question 89: Which component of the female reproductive tract is physically cut or tied off in a tubectomy?

1. Uterus.
2. Ovary.
3. Fallopian tube.
4. Vagina.

Answer: c.

Question 90: LNG-20 is an example of which category of IUD?

1. Non-medicated.
2. Copper-releasing.
3. Hormone-releasing.
4. Surgical.

Answer: c.

Question 91: Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is a common complication arising from untreated cases of what?

1. Typhoid fever.
2. Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs).
3. Common cold.
4. Tuberculosis.

Answer: b.

Question 92: A major reason for the population explosion in India is the rapid decline in which of the following demographic parameters?

1. Birth rate.
2. Life expectancy.
3. Maternal and Infant Mortality Rates.
4. Immigration.

Answer: c.

Question 93: 'Saheli' pill alters the uterine environment to prevent what specific event, while leaving ovulation unaffected?

1. Implantation.
2. Gametogenesis.
3. Fertilization.
4. Copulation.

Answer: a.

Question 94: Which of the following is considered a terminal method of birth control to prevent any future pregnancies permanently?

1. Condoms.
2. Sterilization (Vasectomy/Tubectomy).
3. Oral contraceptive pills.
4. IUDs.

Answer: b.

Question 95: What is the legal framework introduced to regulate and ensure safe abortions in India?

1. Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act.
2. Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act.
3. Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulation Act.
4. Family Planning Act.

Answer: a.

Question 96: During the 'test-tube baby' procedure, which of the following events strictly takes place in vitro?

1. Implantation.
2. Gestation.
3. Fertilization.
4. Parturition.

Answer: c.

Question 97: Assertion (A): Infertility can be solely attributed to the female partner in all cases. Reason (R): Male sperm counts are never affected by environmental or psychological factors. Choose the correct option.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. Both A and R are false.

Answer: d.

Question 98: Which of the following symptoms is typically absent in the early stages of a viral STI like HIV/AIDS, making it dangerous and easily spread?

1. Intense localized pain in genitalia immediately after infection.
2. Formation of painful chancres.
3. Noticeable distinct physical symptoms, resulting in asymptomatic carriers.
4. Heavy purulent discharge from the urethra.

Answer: c.

Question 99: If an early embryo with 4 blastomeres is to be transferred to assist an infertile couple, which technique and site will be chosen?

1. IUT into the uterus.
2. ZIFT into the fallopian tube.
3. GIFT into the ovary.
4. ICSI into the vagina.

Answer: b.

Question 100: According to WHO, what does the term 'Reproductive Health' broadly encompass?

1. Only the structural and functional normality of reproductive organs.
2. Total well-being in all aspects of reproduction: physical, emotional, behavioural, and social.
3. The ability to successfully produce male offspring.
4. The total eradication of sexually transmitted diseases from a population.

Answer: b.

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