NCERT NEET Biology English Medium Part-1 | Chapter 18 : Neural Control and Coordination

NCERT NEET Biology English Medium Part-1 | Chapter 18 : Neural Control and Coordination.

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Question 1. Which of the following processes ensures that two or more organs interact and complement the functions of one another in the human body?

1. Digestion.
2. Homeostasis.
3. Coordination.
4. Respiration.

Answer: c.

Question 2. The neural system and the endocrine system jointly coordinate and integrate all the activities of the organs. How does the neural system differ from the endocrine system in its mode of coordination?

1. It provides chemical integration through hormones.
2. It provides an organised network of point-to-point connections for a quick coordination.
3. It acts slower than the endocrine system.
4. It regulates the body entirely through neurotransmitters released into the blood.

Answer: b.

Question 3. In which of the following organisms is the neural system composed of a simple network of neurons?

1. Earthworm.
2. Cockroach.
3. Hydra.
4. Human.

Answer: c.

Question 4. The human neural system is broadly divided into two parts. Which of the following represents the correct division?

1. Central neural system and somatic neural system.
2. Central neural system and peripheral neural system.
3. Autonomic neural system and sympathetic neural system.
4. Peripheral neural system and visceral neural system.

Answer: b.

Question 5. The peripheral neural system (PNS) comprises all the nerves of the body associated with the central neural system. What are the two types of nerve fibres found in the PNS?

1. Afferent fibres and efferent fibres.
2. Sympathetic fibres and parasympathetic fibres.
3. Cranial nerves and spinal nerves.
4. Somatic fibres and autonomic fibres.

Answer: a.

Question 6. Which nerve fibres transmit regulatory impulses from the Central Nervous System (CNS) to the concerned peripheral tissues/organs?

1. Afferent fibres.
2. Efferent fibres.
3. Sensory fibres.
4. Ascending fibres.

Answer: b.

Question 7. The somatic neural system relays impulses from the CNS to which of the following structures?

1. Smooth muscles.
2. Cardiac muscles.
3. Skeletal muscles.
4. Involuntary organs.

Answer: c.

Question 8. The autonomic neural system transmits impulses from the CNS to the involuntary organs and smooth muscles of the body. It is further classified into which of the following?

1. Sympathetic and parasympathetic neural systems.
2. Somatic and sympathetic neural systems.
3. Afferent and efferent neural systems.
4. Central and peripheral neural systems.

Answer: a.

Question 9. Which part of the peripheral nervous system comprises the whole complex of nerves, fibres, ganglia, and plexuses by which impulses travel from the CNS to the internal organs and vice versa?

1. Somatic neural system.
2. Visceral nervous system.
3. Central nervous system.
4. Parasympathetic neural system.

Answer: b.

Question 10. A neuron is a microscopic structure composed of three major parts. Which of the following is NOT one of these major parts?

1. Cell body.
2. Dendrites.
3. Axon.
4. Synaptic cleft.

Answer: d.

Question 11. Nissl's granules are granular bodies found in specific parts of a neuron. Where are they primarily located?

1. Axon and synaptic knobs.
2. Cell body and dendrites.
3. Myelin sheath and nodes of Ranvier.
4. Synaptic vesicles and axon terminals.

Answer: b.

Question 12. Short fibres that branch repeatedly, project out of the cell body, contain Nissl's granules, and transmit impulses towards the cell body are called?

1. Axons.
2. Synaptic knobs.
3. Dendrites.
4. Schwann cells.

Answer: c.

Question 13. The distal end of the axon is branched, and each branch terminates as a bulb-like structure. What is this structure called?

1. Node of Ranvier.
2. Synaptic knob.
3. Nissl's body.
4. Schwann cell.

Answer: b.

Question 14. Synaptic vesicles containing chemicals called neurotransmitters are present in which part of the neuron?

1. Dendrites.
2. Cell body.
3. Synaptic knobs.
4. Nodes of Ranvier.

Answer: c.

Question 15. Based on the number of axons and dendrites, a neuron with one axon and two or more dendrites is known as?

1. Unipolar neuron.
2. Bipolar neuron.
3. Multipolar neuron.
4. Pseudounipolar neuron.

Answer: c.

Question 16. In which of the following regions of the human body are multipolar neurons prominently found?

1. Retina of the eye.
2. Embryonic stages.
3. Cerebral cortex.
4. Spinal cord ganglia.

Answer: c.

Question 17. Bipolar neurons, possessing one axon and one dendrite, are characteristically found in which of the following structures?

1. Cerebral cortex.
2. Retina of eye.
3. Embryonic tissue.
4. Skeletal muscles.

Answer: b.

Question 18. Which type of neuron is usually found in the embryonic stage and consists of a cell body with one axon only?

1. Multipolar neuron.
2. Bipolar neuron.
3. Unipolar neuron.
4. Non-polar neuron.

Answer: c.

Question 19. Myelinated nerve fibres are enveloped with specific cells that form a myelin sheath around the axon. What are these cells called?

1. Astrocytes.
2. Oligodendrocytes.
3. Schwann cells.
4. Microglia.

Answer: c.

Question 20. The gaps between two adjacent myelin sheaths on a nerve fibre are known as?

1. Synaptic clefts.
2. Nodes of Ranvier.
3. Synaptic knobs.
4. Nissl's granules.

Answer: b.

Question 21. Which of the following neural systems commonly contains unmyelinated nerve fibres enclosed by Schwann cells that do not form a myelin sheath?

1. Spinal and cranial nerves.
2. Autonomous and somatic neural systems.
3. Cerebral cortex and retina.
4. Central nervous system only.

Answer: b.

Question 22. Why are neurons considered excitable cells?

1. Because they lack a nucleus.
2. Because their membranes are in a polarised state.
3. Because they can undergo rapid cell division.
4. Because they synthesize large amounts of proteins.

Answer: b.

Question 23. During the resting state of a neuron, how does the permeability of the axonal membrane to potassium ions (K+) compare to its permeability to sodium ions (Na+)?

1. It is more permeable to Na+ and nearly impermeable to K+.
2. It is comparatively more permeable to K+ and nearly impermeable to Na+.
3. It is equally permeable to both ions.
4. It is impermeable to both ions.

Answer: b.

Question 24. Which of the following is true regarding the resting axonal membrane's permeability to negatively charged proteins present in the axoplasm?

1. It is highly permeable.
2. It is freely permeable under the influence of ATP.
3. It is impermeable.
4. It actively pumps them out.

Answer: c.

Question 25. Due to the differential permeability of the resting membrane, what is the ionic composition of the axoplasm inside the axon?

1. High concentration of K+ and negatively charged proteins, low concentration of Na+.
2. High concentration of Na+ and negatively charged proteins, low concentration of K+.
3. Low concentration of K+ and negatively charged proteins, high concentration of Na+.
4. Equal concentration of Na+ and K+.

Answer: a.

Question 26. The ionic gradients across the resting membrane are maintained by the active transport of ions through the sodium-potassium pump. What does this pump transport?

1. 3 Na+ inwards for 2 K+ outwards.
2. 2 Na+ outwards for 3 K+ inwards.
3. 3 Na+ outwards for 2 K+ inwards.
4. 2 Na+ inwards for 2 K+ outwards.

Answer: c.

Question 27. As a result of the sodium-potassium pump and selective permeability, what is the charge distribution across the resting axonal membrane?

1. Outer surface is negatively charged, inner surface is positively charged.
2. Outer surface is positively charged, inner surface is negatively charged.
3. Both surfaces are positively charged.
4. Both surfaces are negatively charged.

Answer: b.

Question 28. The electrical potential difference across the resting plasma membrane is known as?

1. Action potential.
2. Threshold potential.
3. Resting potential.
4. Spike potential.

Answer: c.

Question 29. When a stimulus is applied at a site on the polarised membrane, to which ion does the membrane at that site suddenly become freely permeable?

1. Potassium ions.
2. Calcium ions.
3. Chloride ions.
4. Sodium ions.

Answer: d.

Question 30. The rapid influx of Na+ following a stimulus leads to the reversal of the polarity at that site. What is this phenomenon called?

1. Polarisation.
2. Depolarisation.
3. Repolarisation.
4. Hyperpolarisation.

Answer: b.

Question 31. The electrical potential difference across the plasma membrane at the site of depolarisation is referred to as?

1. Resting potential.
2. Action potential.
3. Graded potential.
4. Synaptic potential.

Answer: b.

Question 32. During the conduction of a nerve impulse, how does the local current flow on the inner surface of the axonal membrane?

1. From the resting site to the excited site.
2. From the excited site to the resting site.
3. From outside to inside.
4. Current does not flow on the inner surface.

Answer: b.

Question 33. The rise in stimulus-induced permeability to Na+ is extremely short-lived. It is quickly followed by a rise in permeability to which ion to restore the resting potential?

1. Calcium ions.
2. Chloride ions.
3. Magnesium ions.
4. Potassium ions.

Answer: d.

Question 34. A synapse is formed by the membranes of which of the following?

1. Two pre-synaptic neurons.
2. Two post-synaptic neurons.
3. A pre-synaptic neuron and a post-synaptic neuron.
4. An axon and a myelin sheath.

Answer: c.

Question 35. The gap that may separate the membranes of a pre-synaptic neuron and a post-synaptic neuron is called?

1. Synaptic knob.
2. Synaptic cleft.
3. Node of Ranvier.
4. Neuromuscular junction.

Answer: b.

Question 36. At which type of synapses are the membranes of pre- and post-synaptic neurons in very close proximity, allowing electrical current to flow directly?

1. Chemical synapses.
2. Neuromuscular synapses.
3. Electrical synapses.
4. Inhibitory synapses.

Answer: c.

Question 37. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the transmission of an impulse across an electrical synapse compared to a chemical synapse?

1. It is always slower.
2. It is always faster.
3. It occurs at the same speed.
4. It requires neurotransmitters.

Answer: b.

Question 38. Chemicals involved in the transmission of impulses at chemical synapses are known as?

1. Hormones.
2. Neurotransmitters.
3. Enzymes.
4. Antigens.

Answer: b.

Question 39. When an action potential arrives at the axon terminal, it stimulates the movement of synaptic vesicles towards the plasma membrane. Where are the neurotransmitters released?

1. Into the axoplasm.
2. Into the synaptic cleft.
3. Into the myelin sheath.
4. Into the node of Ranvier.

Answer: b.

Question 40. The released neurotransmitters bind to their specific receptors present on which structure?

1. Pre-synaptic membrane.
2. Post-synaptic membrane.
3. Synaptic vesicles.
4. Schwann cells.

Answer: b.

Question 41. The binding of neurotransmitters to their receptors on the post-synaptic membrane opens ion channels. The new potential developed in the post-synaptic neuron may be?

1. Only excitatory.
2. Only inhibitory.
3. Either excitatory or inhibitory.
4. Neither excitatory nor inhibitory.

Answer: c.

Question 42. Which organ acts as the 'command and control system' of the human body?

1. Heart.
2. Spinal cord.
3. Brain.
4. Liver.

Answer: c.

Question 43. The human brain is protected by cranial meninges. Which of the following represents the correct order of these layers from outermost to innermost?

1. Pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater.
2. Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater.
3. Arachnoid, dura mater, pia mater.
4. Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid.

Answer: b.

Question 44. The human brain can be divided into three major parts. Which of the following is NOT one of these parts?

1. Forebrain.
2. Midbrain.
3. Hindbrain.
4. Spinal cord.

Answer: d.

Question 45. The forebrain consists of which of the following structures?

1. Cerebrum, thalamus, and hypothalamus.
2. Cerebellum, pons, and medulla.
3. Cerebrum, pons, and hypothalamus.
4. Thalamus, medulla, and cerebellum.

Answer: a.

Question 46. The deep longitudinal cleft divides the cerebrum into two halves termed as the left and right cerebral hemispheres. These hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called?

1. Corpus luteum.
2. Corpus albicans.
3. Corpus callosum.
4. Corpora quadrigemina.

Answer: c.

Question 47. The layer of cells which covers the cerebral hemisphere is thrown into prominent folds and is called?

1. Cerebral medulla.
2. Cerebral cortex.
3. Cerebellar cortex.
4. Pia mater.

Answer: b.

Question 48. The cerebral cortex is referred to as the grey matter. What gives it this greyish appearance?

1. Concentration of myelin sheaths.
2. Concentration of neuron cell bodies.
3. Presence of cerebrospinal fluid.
4. Extensive network of blood vessels.

Answer: b.

Question 49. Regions of the cerebral cortex that are neither clearly sensory nor motor in function are responsible for complex functions like memory and communication. What are these regions called?

1. Motor areas.
2. Sensory areas.
3. Association areas.
4. Reflex areas.

Answer: c.

Question 50. The inner part of the cerebral hemisphere is called the white matter because it has an opaque white appearance. This appearance is due to the presence of?

1. Non-myelinated nerve fibres.
2. Myelinated nerve fibres.
3. High concentration of neuron cell bodies.
4. Large quantities of cerebrospinal fluid.

Answer: b.

Question 51. The cerebrum wraps around a structure that serves as a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling. What is this structure?

1. Hypothalamus.
2. Thalamus.
3. Cerebellum.
4. Pons.

Answer: b.

Question 52. Which part of the brain lies at the base of the thalamus and contains centres that control body temperature, urge for eating and drinking?

1. Cerebellum.
2. Medulla oblongata.
3. Hypothalamus.
4. Amygdala.

Answer: c.

Question 53. The inner parts of cerebral hemispheres and associated deep structures like amygdala and hippocampus form a complex structure known as?

1. Limbic system.
2. Brain stem.
3. Reticular formation.
4. Corpora quadrigemina.

Answer: a.

Question 54. Along with the hypothalamus, the limbic system is involved in the regulation of which of the following?

1. Breathing and heart rate.
2. Sexual behaviour, expression of emotional reactions, and motivation.
3. Maintenance of posture and balance.
4. Simple reflex actions like knee jerk.

Answer: b.

Question 55. The midbrain is located between the thalamus/hypothalamus of the forebrain and which part of the hindbrain?

1. Medulla.
2. Cerebellum.
3. Pons.
4. Spinal cord.

Answer: c.

Question 56. A canal passes through the midbrain. What is the name of this canal?

1. Central canal.
2. Cerebral aqueduct.
3. Eustachian tube.
4. Semicircular canal.

Answer: b.

Question 57. The dorsal portion of the midbrain consists mainly of four round swellings (lobes) called?

1. Corpus callosum.
2. Corpora quadrigemina.
3. Cerebral peduncles.
4. Olfactory bulbs.

Answer: b.

Question 58. The hindbrain comprises three structures. Which of the following represents these three structures?

1. Cerebellum, thalamus, and medulla.
2. Pons, cerebellum, and medulla.
3. Pons, midbrain, and medulla.
4. Cerebrum, cerebellum, and pons.

Answer: b.

Question 59. Which part of the hindbrain consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of the brain?

1. Cerebellum.
2. Medulla.
3. Pons.
4. Thalamus.

Answer: c.

Question 60. The cerebellum has a very convoluted surface. What is the primary functional reason for this extensive folding?

1. To increase the production of cerebrospinal fluid.
2. To provide additional space for many more neurons.
3. To protect the underlying brain stem.
4. To store neurotransmitters.

Answer: b.

Question 61. The medulla of the brain is connected to the spinal cord. It contains centres that control which of the following functions?

1. Respiration, cardiovascular reflexes, and gastric secretions.
2. Intelligence, memory, and speech.
3. Vision and hearing.
4. Olfaction and taste.

Answer: a.

Question 62. Three major regions form the brain stem. What are they?

1. Forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain.
2. Midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata.
3. Cerebrum, cerebellum, and spinal cord.
4. Thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus.

Answer: b.

Question 63. The brain stem serves as the major connection between the brain and which other structure?

1. Peripheral nerves.
2. Cranial nerves.
3. Spinal cord.
4. Cerebellum.

Answer: c.

Question 64. The entire process of response to a peripheral nervous stimulation, that occurs involuntarily, without conscious effort or thought and requires the involvement of a part of the CNS is called?

1. Action potential.
2. Reflex action.
3. Voluntary action.
4. Synaptic transmission.

Answer: b.

Question 65. A reflex pathway comprises at least one afferent neuron and one efferent neuron. In which sequence are they appropriately arranged?

1. Effector, efferent neuron, CNS, afferent neuron, receptor.
2. Receptor, afferent neuron, CNS, efferent neuron, effector.
3. Receptor, efferent neuron, CNS, afferent neuron, effector.
4. CNS, afferent neuron, receptor, efferent neuron, effector.

Answer: b.

Question 66. In a reflex arc, the afferent neuron receives the signal from a sensory organ and transmits the impulse via a specific root into the CNS (at the level of spinal cord). Which root is this?

1. Ventral nerve root.
2. Dorsal nerve root.
3. Lateral nerve root.
4. Anterior nerve root.

Answer: b.

Question 67. During a knee jerk reflex, the sensory signals travel to the spinal cord. What type of motor response carries signals back to the effector muscle?

1. Afferent pathway.
2. Efferent pathway.
3. Interneuron pathway.
4. Autonomic pathway.

Answer: b.

Question 68. The human eye is located in sockets of the skull. What are these sockets called?

1. Cranial vault.
2. Foramen magnum.
3. Orbits.
4. Sutures.

Answer: c.

Question 69. The wall of the human eye ball is composed of three layers. The external layer is composed of a dense connective tissue and is called the?

1. Choroid.
2. Retina.
3. Sclera.
4. Cornea.

Answer: c.

Question 70. The anterior portion of the sclera, which is transparent, is known as the?

1. Iris.
2. Pupil.
3. Lens.
4. Cornea.

Answer: d.

Question 71. The middle layer of the eye wall contains many blood vessels and looks bluish in colour. What is this layer called?

1. Sclera.
2. Choroid.
3. Retina.
4. Macula lutea.

Answer: b.

Question 72. The choroid layer becomes thick in the anterior part to form which structure?

1. Ciliary body.
2. Iris.
3. Cornea.
4. Fovea centralis.

Answer: a.

Question 73. The ciliary body continues forward to form a pigmented and opaque structure, which is the visible coloured portion of the eye. Name this structure.

1. Pupil.
2. Lens.
3. Iris.
4. Cornea.

Answer: c.

Question 74. The eyeball contains a transparent crystalline lens which is held in place by ligaments attached to the?

1. Iris.
2. Ciliary body.
3. Cornea.
4. Retina.

Answer: b.

Question 75. The aperture surrounded by the iris, located in front of the lens, is called the pupil. The diameter of the pupil is regulated by the muscle fibres of the?

1. Ciliary body.
2. Sclera.
3. Iris.
4. Choroid.

Answer: c.

Question 76. The inner layer of the eye is the retina. It contains three layers of neural cells. From inside to outside, what is their correct order?

1. Photoreceptor cells, bipolar cells, ganglion cells.
2. Ganglion cells, bipolar cells, photoreceptor cells.
3. Bipolar cells, ganglion cells, photoreceptor cells.
4. Ganglion cells, photoreceptor cells, bipolar cells.

Answer: b.

Question 77. There are two types of photoreceptor cells in the retina. What are they called?

1. Bipolar and multipolar cells.
2. Rods and cones.
3. Amacrine and horizontal cells.
4. Ganglion and glial cells.

Answer: b.

Question 78. Daylight (photopic) vision and colour vision are functions of which cells in the retina?

1. Rods.
2. Cones.
3. Ganglion cells.
4. Bipolar cells.

Answer: b.

Question 79. Twilight (scotopic) vision is primarily the function of which cells?

1. Rods.
2. Cones.
3. Macula lutea.
4. Ciliary body.

Answer: a.

Question 80. The rods contain a purplish-red protein called rhodopsin or visual purple, which contains a derivative of which vitamin?

1. Vitamin A.
2. Vitamin B.
3. Vitamin C.
4. Vitamin D.

Answer: a.

Question 81. In the human eye, there are three types of cones which possess their own characteristic photopigments. They respond to which primary colours?

1. Red, yellow, and blue.
2. Red, green, and blue.
3. Blue, green, and yellow.
4. Red, white, and blue.

Answer: b.

Question 82. What occurs when the three types of cones (red, green, and blue) are stimulated equally?

1. Sensation of black light.
2. Sensation of white light.
3. Temporary blindness.
4. Sensation of grey light.

Answer: b.

Question 83. The optic nerves leave the eye and the retinal blood vessels enter it at a point medial to and slightly above the posterior pole of the eyeball. Why is this point called the blind spot?

1. Because it is highly concentrated with rods but lacks cones.
2. Because it contains only cones and no rods.
3. Because photoreceptor cells are absent in that region.
4. Because it is covered by a thick layer of choroid.

Answer: c.

Question 84. At the posterior pole of the eye lateral to the blind spot, there is a yellowish pigmented spot called the macula lutea with a central pit called the?

1. Fovea.
2. Optic disc.
3. Pupil.
4. Aqueous chamber.

Answer: a.

Question 85. The fovea is a thinned-out portion of the retina where only certain cells are densely packed, providing the greatest visual acuity. Which cells are these?

1. Rods.
2. Cones.
3. Ganglion cells.
4. Bipolar cells.

Answer: b.

Question 86. The space between the cornea and the lens is called the aqueous chamber. What fluid does it contain?

1. Vitreous humor.
2. Cerebrospinal fluid.
3. Aqueous humor.
4. Endolymph.

Answer: c.

Question 87. The space between the lens and the retina is called the vitreous chamber. It is filled with a transparent gel called?

1. Aqueous humor.
2. Vitreous humor.
3. Perilymph.
4. Synovial fluid.

Answer: b.

Question 88. Mechanism of vision involves the dissociation of retinal from opsin upon light exposure. This leads to changes in the structure of opsin, resulting in?

1. Depolarization of the photoreceptor cells.
2. Change in membrane permeability, generating a potential difference.
3. Immediate contraction of the iris muscles.
4. Thickening of the lens.

Answer: b.

Question 89. The human ear performs two primary sensory functions. What are they?

1. Hearing and vision.
2. Hearing and maintenance of body balance.
3. Maintenance of body temperature and balance.
4. Hearing and olfaction.

Answer: b.

Question 90. The outer ear consists of the pinna and the external auditory meatus (canal). What is the primary function of the pinna?

1. To vibrate and transmit sound waves to ossicles.
2. To collect the sound waves from the air which produce sound.
3. To equalize pressure on either side of the ear drum.
4. To maintain body balance.

Answer: b.

Question 91. Very fine hairs and wax-secreting glands are present in the skin of the pinna and the meatus. What is the name of these glands?

1. Sebaceous glands.
2. Ceruminous glands.
3. Sweat glands.
4. Meibomian glands.

Answer: b.

Question 92. The tympanic membrane (ear drum) separates the external ear from the middle ear. What is its structural composition?

1. Cartilage covered with skin outside and mucous membrane inside.
2. Connective tissues covered with skin outside and with mucous membrane inside.
3. Bone tissue covered with mucous membrane.
4. Muscle tissue covered with skin.

Answer: b.

Question 93. The middle ear contains three ossicles called malleus, incus, and stapes. The malleus is attached to which structure?

1. Oval window.
2. Round window.
3. Tympanic membrane.
4. Cochlea.

Answer: c.

Question 94. The stapes, the third ear ossicle, is attached to which part of the cochlea?

1. Round window.
2. Tympanic membrane.
3. Oval window.
4. Tectorial membrane.

Answer: c.

Question 95. What is the primary function of the ear ossicles in the middle ear?

1. To produce wax.
2. To increase the efficiency of transmission of sound waves to the inner ear.
3. To equalize air pressure in the middle ear.
4. To maintain body equilibrium.

Answer: b.

Question 96. Which structure connects the middle ear cavity with the pharynx and helps in equalising the pressures on either sides of the ear drum?

1. External auditory canal.
2. Eustachian tube.
3. Semicircular canal.
4. Cochlear duct.

Answer: b.

Question 97. The fluid-filled inner ear is called the labyrinth. It consists of two parts: the bony labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth. What fluid fills the membranous labyrinth?

1. Perilymph.
2. Endolymph.
3. Cerebrospinal fluid.
4. Hemolymph.

Answer: b.

Question 98. The coiled portion of the labyrinth is called the cochlea. The space within the cochlea called scala media is filled with which fluid?

1. Endolymph.
2. Perilymph.
3. Aqueous humor.
4. Vitreous humor.

Answer: a.

Question 99. The Organ of Corti is a structure located on the basilar membrane. It contains hair cells that act as auditory receptors. What lies closely situated above the rows of the hair cells?

1. Reissner's membrane.
2. Tectorial membrane.
3. Tympanic membrane.
4. Macula.

Answer: b.

Question 100. The inner ear also contains a complex system responsible for the maintenance of body balance and posture. This system, located above the cochlea, is called?

1. Organ of Corti.
2. Vestibular apparatus.
3. Scala vestibuli.
4. Eustachian apparatus.

Answer: b.

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