NCERT NEET Biology English Medium Part-1 | Chapter 29 : Biotechnology and its applications

NCERT NEET Biology English Medium Part-1 | Chapter 29 : Biotechnology and its applications

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Question 1. Which of the following is not considered one of the three critical research areas of biotechnology?

1. Providing the best catalyst in the form of an improved organism usually a microbe or pure enzyme.
2. Creating optimal conditions through genetic engineering for a catalyst to act.
3. Developing traditional hybridization procedures to ensure genetic diversity in wild populations.
4. Downstream processing technologies to purify the protein or organic compound.

Answer: c.

Question 2. The Green Revolution succeeded in tripling the food supply but was not enough to feed the growing human population mainly because?

1. Genetically modified crops were highly unstable.
2. Increased yields were partly due to the use of expensive agro-chemicals which farmers in developing countries could not afford.
3. The crop varieties developed were highly susceptible to all known plant viruses.
4. The traditional crops lost their photosynthetic efficiency over time.

Answer: b.

Question 3. Plants, bacteria, fungi, and animals whose genes have been altered by manipulation are called?

1. Genetically modified organisms.
2. Hybridized variants.
3. Somatic hybrids.
4. Cybrids.

Answer: a.

Question 4. Which of the following is an objective of genetic modification in plants?

1. Making crops more sensitive to abiotic stresses like cold and drought.
2. Decreasing the reliance on chemical pesticides.
3. Accelerating post-harvest losses.
4. Decreasing the efficiency of mineral usage by plants.

Answer: b.

Question 5. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop designed to overcome the deficiency of?

1. Vitamin C.
2. Vitamin B12.
3. Vitamin A.
4. Vitamin D.

Answer: c.

Question 6. The Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium named?

1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
2. Bacillus thuringiensis.
3. Thermus aquaticus.
4. Escherichia coli.

Answer: b.

Question 7. Why does the Bt toxin not kill the Bacillus that produces it?

1. The bacterium possesses an innate immunity against the toxin.
2. The toxin is produced in an inactive form called protoxin.
3. The bacterium rapidly excretes the toxin into the surrounding medium.
4. The toxin requires a highly acidic environment to become active, which the bacterium lacks.

Answer: b.

Question 8. What triggers the conversion of inactive Bt protoxin to its active form in the insect gut?

1. Acidic pH of the stomach.
2. Alkaline pH of the gut.
3. High temperature of the insect body.
4. Specific digestive enzymes in the insect's saliva.

Answer: b.

Question 9. The activated Bt toxin binds to the surface of which specific cells in the insect?

1. Midgut epithelial cells.
2. Hindgut muscle cells.
3. Foregut mucosal cells.
4. Hemolymph macrophages.

Answer: a.

Question 10. The genes responsible for producing the insecticidal protein in Bacillus thuringiensis are known as?

1. Trp genes.
2. Cry genes.
3. Lac genes.
4. AmpR genes.

Answer: b.

Question 11. Which of the following cry genes specifically controls the cotton bollworm?

1. cryIAc and cryIIAb.
2. cryIAb and cryIIAb.
3. cryIAc and cryIAb.
4. cryIIIAb and cryIAc.

Answer: a.

Question 12. The protein encoded by the gene cryIAb primarily controls which of the following pests?

1. Cotton bollworm.
2. Corn borer.
3. Tobacco budworm.
4. Armyworm.

Answer: b.

Question 13. A nematode that infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great reduction in yield is?

1. Ascaris lumbricoides.
2. Wuchereria bancrofti.
3. Meloidegyne incognita.
4. Ancylostoma duodenale.

Answer: c.

Question 14. RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of?

1. Extracellular digestion.
2. Cellular defense.
3. Photosynthetic regulation.
4. Intracellular transport.

Answer: b.

Question 15. The mechanism of RNAi involves the silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary?

1. ssDNA molecule.
2. dsRNA molecule.
3. dsDNA molecule.
4. ssRNA molecule.

Answer: b.

Question 16. The source of complementary RNA for RNAi could be from an infection by viruses having RNA genomes or mobile genetic elements called?

1. Plasmids.
2. Bacteriophages.
3. Transposons.
4. Prions.

Answer: c.

Question 17. In the development of nematode-resistant tobacco plants, Agrobacterium vectors are used to introduce nematode-specific genes into the host plant to produce?

1. Only sense RNA.
2. Only antisense RNA.
3. Both sense and antisense RNA.
4. Direct double-stranded DNA.

Answer: c.

Question 18. What is the immediate consequence of the formation of dsRNA in the host plant cells during RNA interference?

1. It permanently modifies the host genome.
2. It initiates the silencing of the specific mRNA of the nematode.
3. It acts as a template for massive protein synthesis.
4. It kills the Agrobacterium vector.

Answer: b.

Question 19. Recombinant DNA technological processes have made immense impact in the area of healthcare by enabling mass production of?

1. Toxic immunosuppressants.
2. Safe and more effective therapeutic drugs.
3. Synthetic heavy metal compounds.
4. Highly addictive painkillers.

Answer: b.

Question 20. Approximately how many recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use the world over?

10. 10.
11. 20.
12. 30.
13. 40.

Answer: c.

Question 21. How many recombinant therapeutics are currently being marketed in India?

10. 10.
11. 12.
12. 20.
13. 30.

Answer: b.

Question 22. Before the advent of recombinant DNA technology, insulin used for diabetes was primarily extracted from the pancreas of?

1. Slaughtered cattle and pigs.
2. Deceased human donors.
3. Genetically modified mice.
4. Cultured yeast cells.

Answer: a.

Question 23. Mature human insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains, chain A and chain B, which are linked together by?

1. Hydrogen bonds.
2. Disulphide bridges.
3. Phosphodiester bonds.
4. Glycosidic bonds.

Answer: b.

Question 24. In mammals, including humans, insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone which contains an extra stretch called?

1. A peptide.
2. B peptide.
3. C peptide.
4. D peptide.

Answer: c.

Question 25. The C peptide is characteristically?

1. Present in mature insulin but absent in proinsulin.
2. Removed during the maturation of proinsulin into insulin.
3. Responsible for linking chain A to chain B in mature insulin.
4. The active site of the insulin hormone.

Answer: b.

Question 26. Which American company prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chains of human insulin in 1983?

1. Monsanto.
2. Pfizer.
3. Eli Lilly.
4. Biocon.

Answer: c.

Question 27. The DNA sequences corresponding to insulin chains A and B were introduced into the plasmids of which organism to produce insulin chains?

1. Bacillus subtilis.
2. Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
3. Escherichia coli.
4. Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

Answer: c.

Question 28. In the Eli Lilly method, how was human insulin ultimately produced?

1. By extracting intact insulin molecules directly from E. coli.
2. By producing chains A and B separately, extracting them, and combining them by creating disulfide bonds.
3. By inserting the complete proinsulin gene into E. coli and allowing the bacteria to process it.
4. By using reverse transcriptase to directly synthesize insulin proteins.

Answer: b.

Question 29. Gene therapy is an attempt to correct a gene defect diagnosed in?

1. A child or embryo.
2. Only elderly individuals.
3. Extinct species.
4. Plants exclusively.

Answer: a.

Question 30. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year-old girl suffering from a deficiency of which enzyme?

1. Phenylalanine hydroxylase.
2. Tyrosinase.
3. Adenosine deaminase.
4. Hexosaminidase A.

Answer: c.

Question 31. The enzyme Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) is crucial for the functioning of the?

1. Digestive system.
2. Immune system.
3. Nervous system.
4. Excretory system.

Answer: b.

Question 32. ADA deficiency can be initially treated by which of the following non-curative methods?

1. Bone marrow transplantation or enzyme replacement therapy.
2. Repeated blood transfusions only.
3. Intravenous administration of insulin.
4. Oral administration of ADA pills.

Answer: a.

Question 33. Why are enzyme replacement therapy and periodic bone marrow transplants not completely curative for ADA deficiency?

1. The patient develops a severe allergic reaction to the enzyme.
2. The introduced cells are not immortal and eventually die.
3. The enzyme rapidly mutates in the bloodstream.
4. The treatment only works on adults, not children.

Answer: b.

Question 34. In gene therapy for ADA deficiency, lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are grown in a culture, and a functional ADA cDNA is introduced using a?

1. Plasmid vector.
2. Retroviral vector.
3. Bacteriophage vector.
4. Cosmid vector.

Answer: b.

Question 35. For a permanent cure of ADA deficiency, the gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA must be introduced into cells at which stage?

1. Adult stage.
2. Early embryonic stages.
3. Puberty.
4. Senescence.

Answer: b.

Question 36. Which of the following is not an early diagnostic technique?

1. Recombinant DNA technology.
2. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).
3. Enzyme Linked Immuno-sorbent Assay (ELISA).
4. Conventional serum and urine analysis.

Answer: d.

Question 37. PCR can detect very low concentrations of a bacteria or virus by?

1. Destroying the pathogen completely.
2. Amplification of their nucleic acid.
3. Increasing the size of the pathogen.
4. Creating specific antibodies against them.

Answer: b.

Question 38. A single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a radioactive molecule is called a?

1. Primer.
2. Probe.
3. Plasmid.
4. Promoter.

Answer: b.

Question 39. In autoradiography, the mutated gene does not appear on the photographic film because?

1. The probe is highly degraded by the mutated gene.
2. The probe does not have complementarity with the mutated gene.
3. The photographic film is insensitive to mutated sequences.
4. The mutated gene physically blocks the radiation.

Answer: b.

Question 40. ELISA is based on the principle of?

1. Antigen-antibody interaction.
2. DNA-DNA hybridization.
3. RNA amplification.
4. Restriction enzyme digestion.

Answer: a.

Question 41. Infection by a pathogen can be detected in ELISA by the presence of antigens or by detecting?

1. The DNA of the pathogen.
2. The RNA of the pathogen.
3. The antibodies synthesized against the pathogen.
4. The plasmids of the pathogen.

Answer: c.

Question 42. Animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra (foreign) gene are known as?

1. Endemic animals.
2. Transgenic animals.
3. Somatic clones.
4. Hybridomas.

Answer: b.

Question 43. The majority of all existing transgenic animals are?

1. Pigs.
2. Sheep.
3. Cows.
4. Mice.

Answer: d.

Question 44. Transgenic animals are specifically designed to study how genes are regulated and how they affect the?

1. Normal functions of the body and its development.
2. Ecological balance of the environment.
3. Evolution of other species.
4. Formation of fossil records.

Answer: a.

Question 45. Transgenic models exist for many human diseases. Which of the following diseases is currently studied using transgenic models?

1. Cancer and cystic fibrosis.
2. Malaria and dengue.
3. Cholera and typhoid.
4. Scurvy and rickets.

Answer: a.

Question 46. Biological products created by transgenic animals are extremely useful because they?

1. Are cheaper to produce chemically.
2. Eliminate the need for human donors or expensive syntheses for complex therapeutic proteins.
3. Have no biological activity, making them safe.
4. Are completely identical to bacterial proteins.

Answer: b.

Question 47. Transgenic animals have been used to produce the human protein alpha-1-antitrypsin, which is used to treat?

1. Cystic fibrosis.
2. Emphysema.
3. Phenylketonuria.
4. Alzheimer's disease.

Answer: b.

Question 48. In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human protein-enriched milk containing how much protein per litre?

1. 1.5 grams.
2. 2.4 grams.
3. 3.2 grams.
4. 4.0 grams.

Answer: b.

Question 49. The milk produced by the transgenic cow Rosie contained which human protein?

1. Human alpha-lactalbumin.
2. Human beta-globulin.
3. Human insulin.
4. Human alpha-1-antitrypsin.

Answer: a.

Question 50. Transgenic mice are being developed for testing the safety of vaccines before they are used on humans. Which vaccine was specifically mentioned in the NCERT text for this application?

1. COVID-19 vaccine.
2. Polio vaccine.
3. Hepatitis B vaccine.
4. Rabies vaccine.

Answer: b.

Question 51. If transgenic mice prove successful and reliable for vaccine safety testing, they could replace the use of which animals in these tests?

1. Guinea pigs.
2. Rabbits.
3. Monkeys.
4. Dogs.

Answer: c.

Question 52. Toxicity/safety testing in transgenic animals is made more sensitive because the animals are modified to carry genes that make them?

1. Completely resistant to all known toxins.
2. More sensitive to toxic substances than non-transgenic animals.
3. Capable of instantly neutralizing toxins.
4. Unable to absorb toxic substances.

Answer: b.

Question 53. Toxicity testing in transgenic animals allows us to obtain results in?

1. More time.
2. Less time.
3. The exact same time as non-transgenic animals.
4. Unpredictable time frames.

Answer: b.

Question 54. Which Indian organization makes decisions regarding the validity of GM research and the safety of introducing GM organisms for public services?

1. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
2. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC).
3. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
4. Department of Biotechnology (DBT).

Answer: b.

Question 55. The modification/usage of living organisms for public services has also created problems with patents because?

1. Living organisms cannot be classified.
2. Certain companies are being granted patents for products and technologies that make use of indigenous knowledge.
3. Patents are only given for non-living inventions.
4. It decreases the overall cost of the product.

Answer: b.

Question 56. How many documented varieties of Basmati rice are grown in India?

15. 15.
16. 27.
17. 50.
18. 200,000.

Answer: b.

Question 57. In 1997, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice through the?

1. Indian Patent Office.
2. US Patent and Trademark Office.
3. World Trade Organization.
4. International Court of Justice.

Answer: b.

Question 58. The "new" variety of Basmati claimed by the American company had actually been derived by crossing Indian Basmati with?

1. African wild rice.
2. Semi-dwarf varieties.
3. Golden rice.
4. Japonica rice.

Answer: b.

Question 59. The term used to describe the use of bio-resources by multinational companies without proper authorization from the countries and people concerned is?

1. Bioremediation.
2. Biomagnification.
3. Biopiracy.
4. Biofortification.

Answer: c.

Question 60. Which amendment of the Indian Patents Bill takes into consideration issues relating to patent terms, emergency provisions, and research and development initiative?

1. First Amendment.
2. Second Amendment.
3. Third Amendment.
4. Fourth Amendment.

Answer: b.

Question 61. Match the critical research areas of biotechnology correctly with their functions: A. Catalyst provision, B. Optimal conditions, C. Downstream processing. Which sequence represents the logical order of a biotech process?

1. A -> B -> C.
2. C -> B -> A.
3. B -> A -> C.
4. A -> C -> B.

Answer: a.

Question 62. Statement I: The Green Revolution succeeded in tripling the food supply. Statement II: The increase in yield was solely due to the use of better management practices and agrochemicals. Choose the correct option.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

Answer: c.

Question 63. Which trait is NOT typically engineered into genetically modified crops?

1. Increased tolerance to abiotic stresses.
2. Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides.
3. Increased post-harvest crop losses.
4. Enhanced nutritional value.

Answer: c.

Question 64. Bacillus thuringiensis strains are known to produce proteins that kill certain insects such as lepidopterans. Which of the following belongs to lepidopterans?

1. Beetles.
2. Flies.
3. Mosquitoes.
4. Tobacco budworm and armyworm.

Answer: d.

 

Question 65. The cry gene from Bacillus thuringiensis is incorporated into crops to provide resistance primarily against?

1. Viral pathogens.
2. Fungal infections.
3. Insect pests.
4. Nematodes only.

Answer: c.

Question 66. During RNA interference, what is the role of the complementary double-stranded RNA?

1. It promotes the translation of the target mRNA.
2. It binds to and prevents translation of the specific mRNA.
3. It destroys the host cell nucleus.
4. It causes the mutation of the plant genome.

Answer: b.

Question 67. Assertion (A): Transgenic tobacco plants are resistant to Meloidegyne incognita. Reason (R): The introduction of nematode-specific genes produces both sense and antisense RNA which initiate RNAi. Select the correct option.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true.

Answer: a.

Question 68. The two DNA sequences prepared by Eli Lilly corresponded to chains A and B of human insulin. How were they inserted into the E. coli?

1. By using a single plasmid containing both genes.
2. By introducing them into separate plasmids to produce chains A and B separately.
3. By directly injecting the DNA into the bacterial cytoplasm.
4. By using a bacteriophage vector.

Answer: b.

Question 69. Statement I: Proinsulin needs to be processed before it becomes a fully mature and functional hormone. Statement II: The processing involves the addition of the C peptide to the A and B chains. Choose the correct option.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

Answer: c.

Question 70. Why is the introduction of a functional ADA cDNA into lymphocytes not considered a permanent cure?

1. The retroviral vectors cause cancer in the patient.
2. The genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal and require periodic infusion.
3. The cDNA gets easily degraded in the cytoplasm.
4. The patient's immune system rejects their own lymphocytes.

Answer: b.

 

Question 71. Early detection of diseases is crucial for effective treatment. Which technique involves the amplification of nucleic acids for diagnosis?

1. Routine urine analysis.
2. ELISA.
3. PCR.
4. Widal test.

Answer: c.

 

Question 72. In molecular diagnosis, a single stranded DNA or RNA probe is used to detect mutated genes. This probe will not hybridize with the mutated gene because?

1. The mutation drastically changes the pH of the cellular environment.
2. The probe completely lacks complementarity with the mutated sequence.
3. Mutated genes are immediately destroyed by the cell.
4. Probes only bind to double-stranded DNA.

Answer: b.

Question 73. Which type of transgenic animals account for over 95 percent of all existing transgenic animals?

1. Rabbits.
2. Pigs.
3. Fish.
4. Mice.

Answer: d.

Question 74. Transgenic models are being developed to study human diseases. Which of the following is NOT currently a common transgenic model as per NCERT?

1. Rheumatoid arthritis.
2. Alzheimer's disease.
3. Cystic fibrosis.
4. Tuberculosis.

Answer: d.

Question 75. The transgenic cow Rosie produced milk that was nutritionally more balanced for human babies than natural cow milk because it contained?

1. Higher fat content.
2. Human alpha-lactalbumin.
3. Extra immunoglobulins.
4. Synthetic vitamins.

Answer: b.

Question 76. Why are transgenic animals uniquely suited for testing chemical safety (toxicity)?

1. They do not feel pain.
2. They are engineered to carry genes which make them more sensitive to toxic substances.
3. They naturally excrete toxic chemicals instantly.
4. They require significantly more time to show toxic effects, allowing detailed study.

Answer: b.

Question 77. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) operates under which country's government?

1. United States of America.
2. United Kingdom.
3. India.
4. Australia.

Answer: c.

Question 78. Traditional knowledge related to bio-resources can be exploited to develop modern applications. This exploitation without compensation is termed?

1. Bio-conservation.
2. Bio-prospecting.
3. Biopiracy.
4. Bioinformatics.

Answer: c.

Question 79. Assertion (A): Industrialized nations are generally rich financially but poor in biodiversity. Reason (R): Developing nations typically have rich biodiversity and traditional knowledge related to bio-resources. Select the correct option.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true.

Answer: b.

Question 80. The Indian Parliament cleared the second amendment of the Indian Patents Bill primarily to address issues related to?

1. Imposing heavy taxes on indigenous farmers.
2. Biopiracy and unauthorized patenting of traditional Indian resources.
3. Banning all forms of genetic engineering in India.
4. Stopping the export of Basmati rice to the USA.

Answer: b.

Question 81. In the context of genetically modified crops, what does "Bt" stand for?

1. Biotechnology.
2. Botanical tissue.
3. Bacillus thuringiensis.
4. Bacterial toxin.

Answer: c.

Question 82. Which of the following pests belong to the order Coleopterans?

1. Beetles.
2. Armyworms.
3. Mosquitoes.
4. Flies.

Answer: a.

Question 83. The Bt toxin protein exists as an inactive protoxin. Its conversion to the active form occurs due to?

1. Action of pepsin in the stomach.
2. Solubilisation of crystals by alkaline pH in the gut.
3. Hydrolysis by salivary amylase.
4. Denaturation by high body temperature.

Answer: b.

Question 84. Which process is responsible for the death of the insect after ingesting Bt toxin?

1. The active toxin binds to the midgut epithelial cells, creating pores that cause cell swelling and lysis.
2. The toxin aggressively degrades the insect's DNA.
3. The toxin inhibits the insect's respiratory electron transport chain.
4. The toxin prevents the molting process of the insect larva.

Answer: a.

Question 85. The choice of specific Bt toxin genes to be incorporated into a plant depends primarily upon?

1. The color of the plant's flowers.
2. The crop and the targeted pest.
3. The soil type in which the crop is grown.
4. The amount of fertilizer applied.

Answer: b.

Question 86. Statement I: RNAi involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA. Statement II: The source of this complementary RNA can be an infection by viruses having DNA genomes. Choose the correct option.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

Answer: c.

Question 87. In the creation of nematode-resistant plants, the introduction of DNA was such that it produced?

1. A single highly toxic protein.
2. Both sense and antisense RNA in the host cells.
3. A novel restriction endonuclease.
4. Only antisense RNA which directly blocked translation.

Answer: b.

 

Question 88. Before human insulin was produced via recombinant DNA technology, what was a common problem faced by diabetic patients using animal-derived insulin?

1. It was too potent and caused severe hypoglycemia.
2. Some patients developed allergies or other types of reactions to the foreign protein.
3. The insulin was rapidly degraded by the stomach acids.
4. Animal insulin lacked the B chain entirely.

Answer: b.

 

Question 89. Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect. This process typically involves?

1. Delivery of a normal gene into the individual or embryo to take over the function of and compensate for the non-functional gene.
2. Surgically removing the defective DNA segment from every cell in the body.
3. Prescribing heavy doses of targeted antibiotics.
4. Administering synthetic mRNA continuously through intravenous drips.

Answer: a.

Question 90. Which of the following is an ethical concern regarding the creation of transgenic animals?

1. Transgenic animals might completely lose their ability to reproduce naturally.
2. The genetic modification may cause unpredictable consequences when such organisms are introduced into the ecosystem.
3. The animals will outcompete native species and destroy agricultural crops.
4. Transgenic animals cannot be patented under any international law.

Answer: b.

Question 91. The use of bioresources by multinational companies and other organizations without proper authorization from the countries and people concerned without compensatory payment is defined as?

1. Bioremediation.
2. Bioethics.
3. Biopiracy.
4. Biosafety.

Answer: c.

Question 92. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the application of biotechnology in agriculture.

1. Genetically modified crops have made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses.
2. Bt crops have increased reliance on chemical pesticides.
3. Golden rice is biofortified with Vitamin A.
4. RNA interference has been successfully used to create nematode-resistant tobacco.

Answer: b.

Question 93. Which vector was utilized to introduce nematode-specific genes into the tobacco plant?

322. pBR322.
323. Lambda phage.
324. Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
325. Retrovirus.

Answer: c.

Question 94. The first transgenic cow 'Rosie' produced human protein-enriched milk. This milk was distinctively useful for?

1. Building muscle mass in athletes.
2. Meeting the nutritional requirements of human babies better than natural cow milk.
3. Treating severe lactose intolerance in adults.
4. Curing cystic fibrosis in young children.

Answer: b.

Question 95. What was the primary reason the American company's patent on Basmati rice was considered controversial?

1. They invented a genuinely new synthetic variety of rice that threatened local markets.
2. They claimed a "novel" invention which was merely an Indian traditional variety crossed with a semi-dwarf variety.
3. They used dangerous chemical mutagens to alter the rice genome.
4. They refused to share the genome sequence with the Indian government.

Answer: b.

Question 96. Which diagnostic technique uses the principle of antigen-antibody interactions to detect infections?

1. PCR.
2. Autoradiography.
3. ELISA.
4. Recombinant DNA technology.

Answer: c.

Question 97. Assertion (A): In molecular diagnosis using a radioactive probe, the mutated gene does not appear on the photographic film. Reason (R): The probe completely lacks complementarity with the mutated gene. Choose the correct option.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true.

Answer: a.

Question 98. How is the recombinant human insulin manufactured today structurally different from the naturally synthesized proinsulin in human bodies?

1. Recombinant insulin has a C peptide, while proinsulin does not.
2. Recombinant insulin lacks the C peptide which is present in proinsulin.
3. Recombinant insulin has only one polypeptide chain instead of two.
4. Recombinant insulin uses synthetic amino acids not found in nature.

Answer: b.

Question 99. The genes cryIAb and cryIIAb specifically control which of the following agricultural pests respectively?

1. Corn borer and cotton bollworm.
2. Cotton bollworm and corn borer.
3. Tobacco budworm and armyworm.
4. Nematodes and root borers.

Answer: a.

Question 100. The concept of RNA interference (RNAi) is best described as a process of?

1. Promoting transcription of specific genes.
2. Cellular defense through post-transcriptional gene silencing.
3. Enhancing the translation efficiency of mRNA.
4. Inducing massive mutations in viral genomes.

Answer: b.

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